silly@proper.UUCP (Steve Chicks) (01/25/84)
[] I don't know about Aramaic, but Latin is lacking in the articles 'the' and 'a'. I wonder if these words really convey any meaning, or if we use them just because we've always used them? Any comments? hplabs!intelca!proper!silly
edhall@randvax.UUCP (01/29/84)
----------------------- I read somewhere once that the Aramaic language used by Jesus in the New Testament did not have an equivalent to the English articles `The' and `A'. In particular I am interested in the lack of the exclusive article, `The'. Does anyone know if this is indeed so? Scholarly references only, please. And please, *please*, any followups of a religious nature to net.religion *only*. -Ed Hall decvax!randvax!edhall (UUCP) edhall@rand-unix (ARPA)
wjb@burl.UUCP (01/30/84)
-- In general, I use the indefinite article to indicate that the object in question is "not special," that is, it is one of several objects that would fit the need of the moment. --> "I wanted a book." I use use the definite article to indicate that the object in question is "special," that is, the object being discussed is the only object that would fit the need of the moment. --> "I wanted the book." Whereas I am sure that I could communicate without the distinction, I do like to be able to make such subtle distinctions in shades of meaning.-- --Bill Buie