wales@ucla-cs.UUCP (07/14/85)
I am seeking more information on so-called "ergative" languages. In ergative languages, the "subject" and "direct object" concepts of Indo-European and many other languages (wherein every verb must have a "subject") do not exist. Rather, they have what might be called "patient" and "agent" concepts; every verb must have a "patient"). (a) "Patient" basically corresponds to the "subject" of intransitive verbs, or the "direct object" of transitive verbs. (b) "Agent" basically corresponds to the "subject" of transitive verbs. The best-known example of an ergative language is Basque. European grammarians, never having encountered an ergative language before and committed to casting every language into a Graeco-Latin mold, tried to explain Basque by proposing that every transitive verb in the language used the passive voice! What I want to find out is, what other ergative languages exist other than Basque? I have heard rumors that some Polynesian and Caucasian languages are ergative, but I have not yet been able to verify this. Also, are there any languages which use neither the "subject/object" nor the ergative "patient/agent" concepts for binding nouns to verbs? -- Rich Wales // UCLA Computer Science Department // +1 213-825-5683 3531 Boelter Hall // Los Angeles, California 90024 // USA ARPA: wales@UCLA-LOCUS.ARPA -or- wales@LOCUS.UCLA.EDU UUCP: ...!(ihnp4,ucbvax)!ucla-cs!wales
michaelm@bcsaic.UUCP (michael b maxwell) (07/19/85)
Re Rich Wales' request for info on ergative languages (I'm posting this thinking there may be some general interest, although I apologize for the length...) First let me say that I wouldn't describe ergative languages in terms of patient/agent terms as opposed to subject/object terms; the two ideas are quite different (patient, agent... are semantic terms, subject, object... are syntactic terms). There are languages which (it has been claimed) use notions like patient etc. rather than subject, such as the languages of the Philipines. These are not ergative. The basic idea of an ergative language is that it (in some way) treats the subjects of intransitive verbs like the objects of transitive verbs. Let's try an example--in English, the subject precedes the verb in both transitive and intransitive verbs, whereas the direct object (which only transitive verbs have) follows the verb: John (subj.) sees Bill (obj.). =transitive John (subj.) runs. =intransitive Now let's suppose that English were ergative. Then we might have the following sentences: John (subj.) sees Bill (obj.). Runs John (subj.). Actually, there are certain constructions of English that resemble ergatives. If there is a prepositional phrase, that PP can often precede an intransitive verb, and the subject follows the verb: Into the room ran John. In the garden stands a statute. An article in a recent issue of the journal Linguistic Inquiry claimed that certain other constructions of English were ergative, although they don't look like what I'd call ergative sentences. At any rate, English is usually considered nonergative. Now--what are some other ways languages can treat subjects of intransitive verbs like objects of transitive verbs? In many languages, which NP (=Noun Phrase) of the sentence is the subj. and which is the object is marked by case markers (typically suffixes) on the nouns, rather than by word order (the word order typically being rather free in such languages). Latin is such a language, and we have a vestige of case marking in English in the pronominal system ("he" is the subject, "him" is typically the object, "his" is the possessive). An ergative case marking language would use the same case marker for the subject of an intransitive verb and the object of a transitive verb. I'm not sure, but I think Basque displays this kind of ergativity. Finally, a language might use person markers on verbs to indicate which NP is the subject and which the object. (Most Indoeuropean languages do this; again, we have a vestige of this in the third person marker -(e)s on most verbs, and more completely in the present tense paradigm of the verb "be.") In some of these languages, this is the main way of telling which NP is which, since either they have fairly free word order, or the word order isn't enough (as in an SOV--i.e. Subject-Object-Verb--language where neither the subject nor the object was obligatory). Tzeltal, a Mayan language from the state of Chiapas in Mexico, is an example of an ergative language using person marking on verbs. The subjects of intransitive verbs and the objects of transitive verbs are marked as suffixes on verbs, while the subjects of transitive verbs are marked as prefixes on verbs. Some examples (with spelling regularized; the word yash/ya is an incompletive marker, somewhat like one of our "helping" verbs; it has a different form for transitive and intransitive verbs, but this has nothing to do with Tzeltal being ergative): Yash talon ta sna Antonio. incompl. you-come from house-of Antonio "I come from Antonio's house." Yash talat ta sna Antonio. incompl. you-come from house-of Antonio "You come from Antonio's house." Ya 'awilon. incompl. you-see-me "You see me." Ya kilat. incompl. I-see-you. "I see you." I believe most Mayan languages are ergative. Niuean, a Polynesian language, is also ergative; a fairly extensive syntax is given in a paper by William Seiter which appeared in Linguistic Inquiry about 1979 (sorry, I don't have the exact reference, but I can get it if you want). There are many other ergative languages, although they are in the minority. A question remains: are ergative languages *really* that different, or is it just a matter of "superficial" differences like case marking? I suspect the latter--in fact there are processes in language which appear to happen prototypically to subjects (Example: in infinitivals, the missing argument of the verb is the subject: "John tries to run" => John is the runner; you can't say something like "John tries for Mary to see" meaning that John is the one seen without using the passive. Tzeltal is no different from English in this respect--it is always the subject which is "missing".) An interesting article in this regard is Stephen Anderson 1976 "On the Notion of Subject in Ergative Languages," in Subject and Topic, edited by Charles Li, pg. 1-23. I believe he discusses Caucasian languages, although it's been awhile since I read it... -- Mike Maxwell
mmar@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP (Mitchell Marks) (07/21/85)
There has been a lot of ugly disagreement on just how to describe what's special about ergativity. So I'll just say, not that I think Rich Wales's way of describing it is wrong, but that there are other descriptions which I find easier to use. He wrote that ergative languages use an agent/patient distinction while nominative-accusative languages use a subject/object distinction. From my perspective, the former is semantic and the latter is syntactic, and all languages use both; one dimension of difference among languages is how they handle the mapping from one set of roles to the other. (There is some justice to saying that classic highly ergative languages must have a very different notion of subject from classic nom-acc languages, and defining these syntactic roles is tricky and should be done language by language.) Let's start off with a very unhelpful definition: An ERGATIVE LANGUAGE =df a language with a large number of ERGATIVE CONSTRUCTIONS or PROCESSES. This entirely leaves open what that threshold level would be; the idea is not so much that you can draw your own line for saying which languages are or are not ergative as a binary feature, but rather to encourage talking about languages as "highly ergative", "slightly ergative" etc in a scale. Then the real work has to be done in the explanation of "Ergative Construction." Let 'S' stand for "the single term (noun phrase) in an intransitive sentence". It mnemonically plays on the notion 'subject' but doesn't require it as a more primitive notion. Let 'A' stand for "the term referring to the agent in a transitive sentence", and let 'O' stand for "the term referring to the patient or goal in a transitive sentence". These *do* depend on more basic notions. Then: An ERGATIVE CONSTRUCTION or PROCESS =df one which treats S and O similarly, and in contrast to A. A NOMINATIVE-ACCUSATIVE CONSTRUCTION or PROCESS =df one which treats S and A similarly, and in contrast to O. ERGATIVE ACCUSATIVE S S \ / \ / \ / A O A O The most important area for ergative vs nom-acc constructions is in positional or case marking of central terms in root sentences. Originally, this was all that was meant in the basic distinction of a language being ergative or not, and is still what is usually meant by an unqualified statement that such-and-such "is an ergative language". English has only remnants of a case-marking system, but a pretty rigid positional system. We say He ran. He hit him. so English is a nominative-accusative language, to the extent that the two-way distinction applies here at all. It would be ergative if the pattern were Him ran. or better yet: Ran him. He hit him. But, as I was urging in the general definition, there are other areas of ergativity. These can be found even in a language which is mostly accusative. For example, those who know French may want to take a look at what happens in the faire-causative. My French is not very good, so there will be some mistakes in this example, but I hope it will illustrate the point anyway. 1. Jean mange. (john eats) 2. Jean mange le pain. (john eats the bread) 3. Je lui fais manger (`a Jean). (I make/have him [John] eat.) 4. Je le lui fais manger. (I make/have him eat it.) I actually need another couple of sentences, to show that in (4) the 'le' pronominalizes 'Jean' and the 'lui' pronominalizes 'le pain' -- better choice of the food, for gender or number, would have done it. Now, note that 'Jean' is the S in (1). 'Jean' is the A and 'le pain' is the O in (2). Sentences (3) and (4) embed (1) and (2) respectively in the causative construction (or they would, if the objects were spelled out). Notice that the S and the O went to 'lui' while the A went to 'le'. Thus this qualifies as an ergative construction, though we would hardly want to call French an ergative language in general. -- -- Mitch Marks @ UChicago ...ihnp4!gargoyle!sphinx!mmar
aeb@mcvax.UUCP (Andries Brouwer) (07/24/85)
In article <853@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP> mmar@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP (Mitchell Marks) writes: > For example, those who know French may want to > take a look at what happens in the faire-causative. My French is not > very good, so there will be some mistakes in this example, but I hope > it will illustrate the point anyway. > > 1. Jean mange. (john eats) > 2. Jean mange le pain. (john eats the bread) > 3. Je lui fais manger (`a Jean). (I make/have him [John] eat.) > 4. Je le lui fais manger. (I make/have him eat it.) > > I actually need another couple of sentences, to show that in (4) the 'le' > pronominalizes 'Jean' and the 'lui' pronominalizes 'le pain' -- better > choice of the food, for gender or number, would have done it. No, 'lui' in (4) refers to 'Jean', so your example is void. { Make Jean plural and see 'lui' change into 'leur'. }
jack@rlgvax.UUCP (Jack Waugh) (07/25/85)
In a restaurant I saw an advertisement claiming that a particular meat-like product "eats like a boneless sparerib". I wasn't sure how such a rib eats anything. Now I suppose it is an ergative construction meaning "can be eaten as a boneless sparerib could be eaten". (Of course, the sign is in the Advertisingese dialect of English, a dialect that seeks to maximize connotation and affect while giving no denotation at all.) I have also heard people say a line "scans" or a programming construction "parses", meaning can be scanned or can be parsed by the parser we would normally expect to submit it to.
mmar@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP (Mitchell Marks) (07/29/85)
Examples like This boat seats five. This pizza chews a little tough. (those are different) resemble not so much the ergative constructions as something called the `mediopassive' or middle voice. This is not marked by a special verb inflection in English, but in some languages (e.g. classical Greek) it is, and gives a third alternative to the active and passive voices. -- -- Mitch Marks @ UChicago ...ihnp4!gargoyle!sphinx!mmar