[net.nlang] Irresistible grammar flame

weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) (03/07/86)

I'm sorry, but I could not--repeat, could not--help myself.

>Most of the examples given to try to show that it is okay to have a
>plural pronoun with singular antecedent do just the opposite.  The
>examples all have plural antecedents.  Notice the difference
>between "Each person had his own car" and "Everyone had their
>own car," both of which is correct.  That, however, is simply
>because "each" is singular, whereas "everyone" is plural.

Notice the difference between 'Notice the difference between "Each
person had his own car" and "Everyone had their own car," both of
which is correct' and 'Notice the difference between "Each person
had his own car" and "Everyone had their own car," both of which are
correct', one of which is correct.  That, however, is simply
because "both" is plural.

>So don't be so sure that a mixup of number is acceptable.

Point taken.

O-)	Megaton Man, on patrol!

Wooo!

ucbvax!brahms!weemba	Matthew P Wiener/UCB Math Dept/Berkeley CA 94720

mrgofor@mmm.UUCP (MKR) (03/14/86)

>>because "each" is singular, whereas "everyone" is plural.

	Any consensus on this? I was under the impression that "everyone"
is considered singular. (At least on the western side of the Atlantic -
the British have some slightly different views on the plurality of
groups, i.e. "The band are playing well tonight.")

	Try it:

	"Everyone is wrong about all of this!"
	"Everyone are wrong about all of this!"

	I are too confused.


-- 
					--MKR

Sometimes even the President of the United States must have to 
stand naked.    - Dylan

hav@dual.UUCP (Repo Wench) (03/25/86)

In article <606@mmm.UUCP>, mrgofor@mmm.UUCP writes:
> 	Any consensus on this? I was under the impression that "everyone"
> is considered singular. (At least on the western side of the Atlantic -
> the British have some slightly different views on the plurality of
> groups, i.e. "The band are playing well tonight.")

Aaaaaaargh!!!  I can't stand it any more!  From my American Heritage Dictionary:

     e.g. *Lat.* exempli gratia (for example).

     i.e. *Lat.* id est (that is).

I see these two confused all the time, and it DRIVES ME NUTS!  A single example
should use the former; a re-statement of an earlier statement should use the
latter.

For all the times I've seen someone go on in this newsgroup about "spelling and
grammar on the net" (I wish I had a dollar for every time the discussion has
started up again), I still can't believe how often these two abbreviations get
switched around.

     Helen Anne      {ihnp4,cbosgd,hplabs,decwrl,ucbvax,sun}!dual!hav

            /* This is a disclaimer.  I deny it all.  Period. */

Hey, there's a great future as a fry cook!  I could be manager in two years.