[net.math] Another head scratcher, and solution to the last one.

phr@ucbvax.ARPA (Paul Rubin) (05/29/85)

Andrew Nash, Peter Royappa, and a few other people answered the last
head scratcher, which was to demonstrate a bijection between (0,1) and
[0,1].  The solutions were all pretty hard for me to follow, but the
idea was the same in each:  [0,1] is (0,1) with two extra points, 0 and 1.
So you can map everything to itself, except you have to first get
rid of these points, by mapping them to (say) 1/2 and 1/3 respectively.
Then you must get rid of 1/2 and 1/3, by sending them to (say)
1/4 and 1/5, and so on down the line.  One such mapping f from
[0,1] to (0,1) then is

	f(x) = x, unless x = 0 or x = 1/n for some integer n;
	f(x) = 1/(n+2) otherwise.

======================================================================
Now the new one:

Give an example of an infinite sequence a_0, a_1, ... so that the series

infinity
 ____
 \     a_n   does not converge, but
 /___
 n = 0


infinity
 ____
 \     a_n / (1 + n a_n)      converges.
 /___
 n = 0

egs@epsilon.UUCP (Ed Sheppard) (05/29/85)

How about
                 _
                |
                |   1    if i=2^j-1  for some j in N
         a[i] = |
                |   0    otherwise
                |_

so that the sequence a looks like this

	1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, ...

The sum of a[i] diverges, but the sum of a[i]/(1+i*a[i]) is 2.

					Ed Sheppard
					Bellcore