JEK@NIHCU (James Kiefer) (02/10/90)
David <COSMO@TRIUMFER> makes the point that the word "virgin" (or a corresponding word in Hebrew or Greek) was sometimes used ambiguously by the ancients. This is a legitimate point, but I doubt its relevance. In reading Matthew 1:18-25 and Luke 1:26-38, I find that the "no sex" is pretty explicit in the narrative, even if I change "virgin" to "young woman" throughout. David ends by saying: > However, I've learned to stop worrying about all that, and just > leave it at "God can do anything He wants." Good point. Yours, James Kiefer
bin@PRIMATE.WISC.EDU (Brain in Neutral) (02/13/90)
From article <CHRISTIA%90021000043572@FINHUTC>, by JEK@NIHCU (James Kiefer): > David <COSMO@TRIUMFER> makes the point that the word "virgin" (or a > corresponding word in Hebrew or Greek) was sometimes used > ambiguously by the ancients. I guess the thing I wonder about is that if it just means young girl, then what is the "sign" that Matthew talks about? How is it a sign if it doesn't mean virgin? Paul DuBois Internet: dubois@primate.wisc.edu UUCP: rhesus!dubois FAX: 608/263-4031