gwydion@Dyved.csc.ti.com (Basalat Ali Raja) (02/22/90)
In article <16132@orstcs.CS.ORST.EDU> abdenour@mist.CS.ORST.EDU (Abdennour A. MOUSSAOUI) writes: >Well, This time Martillo has his source correct. Ali Raja was wrong (we all >make mistakes) the verse he quoted was in Al-Anfaal 8:28. >But, Martillo misquoted the verse, as one can see that the verse is not >fininshed there's a comma. Here is the complete verse (Yusuf Ali): >A-Tawba (repentance) 9:28: >"O ye who believe! Truly the pagans are unclean; So let them not, after >this year of theirs, approach the Sacred Mosque. And if ye fear poverty, >Soon will God enrich you, If He wills, out of His bounty, For Allah is >All-Knowing, All-Wise." My mistake. I mistook the Guz number for the Surah number. In the Marmaduke Pickthall translation, the word idolaters is used instead of pagan. >Now about inpurity of non-muslims. Non-mulsims are inpure spritually or >religiously not physically. The majority of scholars agree on this. >The evidence that non-muslims are not physically inpure are: >-Allah has made lawful the food of the people of the book which are non-muslim >-The prophet ate from the food of the Jewish woman as mentioned in the > hadith. All that this Hadith seems to be showing is that the food of the Jews is not physically impure. This does not seem to show that the Jews themself are physically impure. It also seems to me that it is quite possible that the purity can be referred to as the Wadoo, and impurity can be referred to as not making Wadoo. Thus a person who has never made Wadoo in his life can be regarded as impure. Do you know of any scholars who have considered this argument and what were their opinions?