finney@beaver.cs.washington.edu (Ken Finney) (10/16/89)
I have two questions that hopefully the more learned out there can
help me with.
Why did polygamy die out? The only admonition against it that I can find
in "Let Bishops be the husband of only one wife" and in context it appears
not to be a moral judgement, but perhaps that more than one wife would
distract a bishop so that he cannot properly attend to church business?
Did the Greek influence of "Women are nothing but hideously deformed men"
and that the perfect form of love was between men cause polygamy to
die out?
What exactly were concubines? Since sex outside of marriage is sin,
but that having sex with concubines is not sin, were concubines a form
of "junior wife", or were they considered as entirely seperate from
the wive(s). Was there any sort of "ceremony" when a concubine was
taken? What was the legal status of concubines, did the man have to
provide for her in old age and/or provide for the offspring?
Please email me because I am going to be on a trip and am afraid
the responses may scroll off the message base before I return.
Thanks,
Ken Finney @ Boeing Arts and Entertainment
[My impression is that multiple wives had died out well before the 1st
Cent. "the husband of one wife" is generally taken as being
consistent with prevailing Jewish ethics. I don't know any more
details. --clh]