stevep@cadence.com (Steve Peterson) (11/13/90)
Here is a fairly complete discussion of the ransom sacrifice of Jesus Christ. It discusses how the concept of ransoming and redeeming was used throughout the "Old Testament" in order to help build ones appreciation for the redemption that comes through Jesus Christ. I hope it is helpful to those who are interested in this topic. Best Regards...... Steve Peterson ---- stevep@cadence.com or ...!uunet!cadence!stevep The English words "ransom" and "redemption" come from the same source, the Latin redemptio, refering to "a buying back," Generally, however, "ransom" (received through the French rancon) has come to carry the thought of liberation, as from slavery or from some obligation or undesirable circumstance, "Redemption" today has more the thought of regaining possession of something. The two (originally synonymous ) words are used in the translation of a number of Hebrew and Greek terms. In all these terms the inherent similarity lies in the idea of a giving of a price or thing of value to effect the ransom or redemption. The thought of exchange is therefore common in all, as well as that of correspondence, equivalence or substitution. that is one thing is given for another, satisfying the demands of justice and resulting in a balancing of matters. The Hebrew noun kopher comes from the verb kaphar, meaning, basically, "to cover", as in Noah's covering the ark with tar. (Gen. 6:14) Kaphar, however, is used almost entirely to describe the satisfying of justice through the covering or stoning for sins. The noun kopher refers to the thing given to accomplish this, the ransom price. (Ps. 65:3; 78:38; 79:8,9) A covering corresponds to the thing it covers, either in its form (as in a material lid, such as the "cover [khapporeth]" of the ark of the covenant [Ex. 25:17-22]), or in its value (as in a payment to cover the damages caused by an injury. As a means for balancing justice and setting matters straight with his people Israel, Jehovah, in the Law covenant, designated various sacrifices and offerings to atone for or cover sins, including those of the priests and Levites (Ex. 29:33-37), or other individuals or of the nation as a whole (Lev. 16:16-20) In effect, the life of the animal sacrificed went in place of the life of the sinner, its blood making atonement on God's altar, that is, to the extent that it could. (Lev. 17:11; compare Hebrews 9:13,14; 10:1-4) The "day of atonement [yohm hak-kippurim]" may just as properly be called the "day of the ransoms." (Lev. 23:26-28) These sacrifices were required if the nation and its worship were to have and maintain the righteous God's acceptance and approval. Well illustrating the sense of a redeeming exchange is the law regarding the owner of a bull known to gore who allows it to go loose so that it killed someone. The owner was to be put to death, paying for the life of the slain person with his own life. However, since he did not deliberately or directly kill another, if the judges viewed it proper to impose upon him a "ransom [kopher]" instead, then he must pay that redemption price. The sum assessed and paid was viewed as taking the place of his own life and compensating for the life lost. (Ex. 21:28-32; compare Deut. 19:21.) On the other hand, no ransom could be accepted for the deliberate murderer; only his own life could cover the death of the victim. (Num. 35:31-33) Evidently because a census involved lives, at the time such was taken each male over twenty had to have a ransom (kopher) of half a shekel given for his soul to Jehovah, the same price applying whether the individual was rich or poor. (Ex. 30:11-16) Since any imbalance of justice is displeasing to God, as well as among humans, the ransom or covering could have the additional effect of averting or quelling anger. (Compare Jeremiah 18:23; also Gen. 32:20, where "appease" translate kaphar.) The husband enraged at the man committing adultery with his wife, however, refuse any "ransom" [kopher]." (Prov. 6:35) The term may also be used with regard to those who *should* execute justice but who instead accept a bribe or gift as "hush money" [kopher]" to cover over the wrongdoing in their sight. (1Sam. 12:3; Amos 5:12) The Hebrew "padhah", according to lexicographer Gesenius, has the basis idea "to cut loose," that is, "to loose or let go" as by payment of a redemption price (pidhyon; Ex. 21:30). So this term emphasizes the *releasing* accomplished by the redemption price while kaphar places stress on the *quality* or *content* of the price and its *efficacy* in balancing the scales of justice. The releasing or redeeming (padhah) may be from slavery (Lev. 19:20; Deut. 7:8), or from other distressing or oppressive conditions (2Sam. 4:9; Job 6:23; Ps. 55:18), or from death and the grave. (Job 33:28; Ps. 49:15) Frequent reference is made to Jehovah's redeeming the nation of Israel from Egypt to be his "private property" (Deut. 9:26; Ps. 78:42), and to his redeeming them from Assyrian and Babylonian exile many centuries later. (Isa. 35:10; 51:11; Jer. 31:11, 12; Zech. 10:8-10) Here, too, the redemption involved a price, an exchange. In redeeming Israel from Egypt, Jehovah evidently caused the price to be paid by Egypt, Israel was, in effect, God's "firstborn" and Jehovah warned Pharaoh that his stubborn refusal to release Israel would cause the life of Pharaoh, firstborn and the firstborn of all Egypt, human and animals, to be exacted. (Ex. 4:21-23; 11:4-8) Similarly, in return for Cyrus' overthrow of Babylon and his liberation of the Jews from their exiled state, Jehovah gave "Egypt as a ransom [form of kopher] for [his people], Ethiopia and Seba" in their place. The Persian Empire thus later conquered those regions and so 'national groups were given in place of the Israelites' souls' (Isa. 43:1-4) These exchanges are in harmony with the inspired declaration that the "wicked is [or serves as] a ransom [kopher] for the righteous one; and the one dealing treacherously takes the place of the upright ones." (Prov. 21:18) Another Hebrew term associated with redemption is gaal, and this conveys primarily the thought of reclaiming, recovering or repurchasing. (Jer. 32:7,8) Its similarity to padhah is seen by its parallel use with that term at Hosea 13:14: "From the hand of Sheol I shal redeem [padhah] them; from death I shall recover [gaal] them." (Compare Psa. 69:18.) Gaal gives emphasis to the right of the reclaiming or repurchasing, either by a near kinsman of a person whose property or whose very person needs to be repurchased or reclaimed, or by the original owner or seller himself. A near kinsman, called a 'goel', was thus a "repurchases" (Ruth 2:20; 3:9,13), or, in cases where a murder was involve, a "blood avenger." (Num. 35:12) The Law provided that in the case of a poor Israelite whose circumstances forced him to sell his hereditary lands, his city house, or even to sell himself into servitude, "a repurchases closely related to him" or, 'goel', had the right to "buy back [gaal] what his brother sold," or the seller could do so himself if funds became available to him. (Lev. 25:23-27, 29-34, 47-49; compare Ruth 4:1-15.) If a man should make a vow offering to God of a house or field and then desire to buy it back, he had to pay the valuation placed on the property plus a fifth in addition to that estimated value. (Lev. 27:14-19) However, no exchange could be made for anything "devoted to destruction". (Lev. 27:28, 29) In the case of murder, the murderer was not allowed sanctuary in the appointed cities of refuge, but, after the judicial hearing, was turned over by the judges to the "avenger [goel] of blood," a near kinsman of the victim, who then put the murderer to death. Since no "ransom [kopher]" was allowed for the murderer and since the near kinsman with right of repurchase could not reclaim or recover the life of his dead relative, he rightfully claimed the life of the one who had taken his relative's life by murder. (Num. 35:9-32; Deut. 19:1-13) NOT ALWAYS A TANGIBLE PRICE -------------------------- As has been shown, Jehovah "redeemed" (padhah) or 'reclaimed' (gaal) Israel from Egypt. (Ex. 6:6; Isa. 51:10,11) Later, because the Israelites kept "selling themselves to do what was bad" (2 Ki. 17:16,17), Jehovah on several occasions 'sold them into the hands of their enemies.' (Deut. 32:30; Judg. 2:14; 3:8; 10:7; 1 Sam. 12:9) Their repentance caused him to buy them back or reclaim them out of distress or exile (Ps. 107:2,3; Isa 35:9, 10; Mic. 4:10), thereby performing the work of a 'Goel', a Repurchaser related to them inasmuch as he had espoused the nation to himself. (Isa. 43:1, 14; 48:20; 49:26; 50:1, 2; 54:5-7) In 'selling' them, Jehovah was not paid some material compensation by the pagan nations. The return or income from the 'sale' may be something other than such tangible things, as goods or money. For example, the Israelites 'sold themselves' in order to receive pleasure from their wrongdoing, even as King Ahab 'sold himself to do evil' to gain such pleasure. (1 Ki. 21:20) So, too, though with right motives, Jehovah could 'sell' his people for something not tangible, his payment being the satisfaction of this justice and the fulfillment of his purpose to have the corrected and disciplined for their rebellion and disrespect (Compare Isa. 48:17, 18) God's 'repurchasing' likewise need not involve the payment of something tangible. Aside from the case of Cyrus' willing liberation of the exiled Israelites, when freeing his people Jehovah paid nothing to the oppressor nations since these had acted without just cause and with malice in enslaving his people. Rather Jehovah exacted the price from the oppressors themselves, making them pay with their won lives. (Compare Psa. 106:10; Isa 41:11-14; 49:26.) His people's being sold to pagan nations brought them "nothing" from their enslavers in the way of true benefit or relief and Jehovah therefore needed to make no payment to their captors to balance matters out. Instead, he effected the repurchase through the power of "his holy are." (Isa 52:3-10; Ps. 77:14,15) Jehovah's role of "Goel" thus embraced the avenging of wrongs done to his servants and resulted in the sanctifying and vindicating of his own name against those who used Israel's distress as an excuse to reproach him. (ps. 78:35; Isa. 59:15-20; 63:3-6, 9) As the Great Kinsman and Redeemer of both the nation and its individuals, he conducted their "legal case" to effect justice. (Ps. 119:153, 154; Jer. 50:33, 34; Lam. 3:58-60; compare Pro. 23:10,11.) Though living before and outside the nation of Israel, Job trusted that some near kinsman with the right of repurchase would come to recover him from his plight, even though such one should come when Job's disease-wracked body had wasted away to a virtual skeleton. (Job 19:25,26; compare Psa. 69:18; 103:4) Following God's own example, Israel's king was to act as a redeemer on behalf of the lowly and poor ones of the nation. (Ps. 72:1, 2, 114.) CHRIST JESUS' ROLE AS RANSOMER ------------------------------ The foregoing information lays the basis for understanding the ransom provided for humankind though God's Son, Christ Jesus. Mankind's need for a ransom came about through the rebellion in Eden. Adam sold himself to do evil for the selfish pleasure of listening to his wife's voice and of keeping continued company with the sinful transgressor, and to share the same condemned standing with her before God. He thereby sold himself and his descendants into slavery to sin and to death, the price that God's justice required. (Rom. 5:12-19; compare Rom. 7:14-25) Having possessed human perfection, Adam lost this valuable possession for himself and all his offspring. The Law, which had a "shadow of the good things to come," provided for animal sacrifices as a covering for sin. This, however, was only a symbolic or token covering, since such animals were inferior to man; hence, it was "not possible for the blood of bulls and of goats to [actually] take sins away." as the apostle points out. (Heb. 10:1-4) Those pictorial animal sacrifices had to be without blemish, perfect specimens. (Lev. 22:21) The real ransom sacrifice, a human actually actually capable of removing sins, must therefore also be perfect, free from blemish. He would have to correspond to the perfect Adam and possess human perfection, if he were to pay the price of redemption that would release Adam's offspring from the debt, disability and enslavement into which their first father Adam had sold them. (Compare Rom. 7:14; Psa 51:5.) Only thereby could he satisfy God's perfect justice that requires like for like, a 'soul for a soul' (Ex. 21:23-25; Deut. 19:21) The strictness of God's justice made it impossible for mankind itself to provide its own redeemer or 'goel'. (Ps. 49:6-9) However, this results in the magnifying of God's own love and mercy in that he met his own requirements at tremendous cost to himself, giving the life of his own Son to provide the redemption price. (Rom. 5:6-8) This required his Son's becoming human to correspond with the perfect Adam. God accomplished this by transferring his Son's life from heaven to the womb of the Jewish virgin Mary. (Luke 1:26-37; Joh 1:14) Since Jesus did not owe his life to any human father descended from the sinner Adam, and since God's holy spirit 'overshadowed' Mary, evidently from the time she conceived until the time of Jesus' birth, Jesus was born free from any inheritance of sin or imperfection, being, as it were, "an unblemished and spotless lamb," whose blood could prove an acceptable sacrifice. (Luk. 1:35; John 1:29; 1 Peter 1:18, 19) He maintained that sinless state throughout his life and thus did not disqualify himself. (Heb 4:15; 7:26; 1 Peter 2:22) As a 'sharer of blood and flesh,' he was a "near kinsman" of mankind and he had the thing of value, his own perfect life maintained pure through tests of integrity, with which to repurchase mankind, emancipate them. (Heb 2:14,15) The Christian Greek Scriptures [The "New Testament"] make clear that the release from sin and death is indeed by the paying of a price. Christians are said to be "bought with a price" (1 Cor. 6:20; 7:23), having an "owner that bought them" (2 Peter 2:1), and Jesus is presented as the Lamb who 'was slaughtered and with his blood bought persons for God out of every tribe, tongue and nation.' (Rev. 5:9) In these texts the verb 'agorazo' is used, meaning simply to buy at the market (agora). The related 'exagorazo' (releasing by purchase) is used by Paul in showing that Christ released "by purchase those under lay" through his death on the stake. (Gal. 4:5; 3:13) But the thought of *redemption* or *ransoming* is more frequently and more fully expressed by the Greek 'lytron' and related terms. `Lytron' (from lyo, meaning "to loose") was especially used by Greek writers to refer to a price paid to ransom prisoners of war or to release those under bond or in slavery. (Compare Heb. 11:35) In its two Scriptural occurrences it describes Christ's giving "his soul a ransom in exchange for many." (Matt. 20:28; Mark 10:45) A special form of this word, 'antilytron', appears at 1 Tim. 2:6. Parkhurst's 'A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament' (p. 47) says it means: "a ransom, price of redemption, or rather a correspondent ransom. 'It properly signifies a price by which captives are redeemed from the enemy; and that kind of exchange in which the life of on is redeemed by the life of another.' So Aristotle uses the verb 'antilytroo' for redeeming life by life." This Christ "gave himself a corresponding ransom for all." (1Tim. 2:5,6) Other related words are 'lytroo, to release on receipt of ransom (Titus 2:14; 1 Pet. 1:18,19), and 'apolytrosis', a releasing by ransom. (Eph. 1:7, 14; Col. 1:14) The similarity of the usage of these words with that of the Hebrew terms considered is evident. They describe, not an ordinary purchase or releasing, but a redeeming or ransoming, a deliverance effected by payment of a corresponding price. Though available to all, Christ's ransom sacrifice is not accepted by all, and the "wrath of God remains" upon those not accepting it, as it also comes upon those who first accept and then turn away from that provision. (John 3:36; Heb. 10:26-29; contrast Romans 6:9, 10.) They gain no deliverance from the enslavement to Kings Sin and Death. (Rom. 5:21) God is pleased to approve the application of the ransom to redeem those of Adam's offspring who avail themselves of such release. As Paul states, "as through the disobedience of the one man many were constituted sinners, likewise also through the obedience of the one person many will be constituted righteous." (Rom. 5:18, 19) At the time of Adam's sin and his being sentenced to death, his offspring or race were all unborn in his loins and so all died with him. (Compare Hebrew 7:4-10; Romans 7:9) Jesus as a perfect man, "the last Adam" (1 Cor. 15:45), had a race or offspring unborn in his loins, and when he died innocently as a perfect human sacrifice this potential human race died with him. He had willingly abstained from producing a family of his own by natural procreation. Instead, Jesus uses the authority granted by Jehovah on the basis of his ransom to give life to all those who accept this provision. (1 Cor. 15:45; compare Romans 5:15-17)
wagner@karazm.math.uh.edu (David Wagner) (11/20/90)
Steve Peterson wrote a lengthy article on redemptiion, its meaning, and how Christ redeemed us from our sins. I write this to clarify a few things regarding what is false in the Jehhovah's Witness teachings on this subject. I cannot comment in detail on his article because of it's length. As I understand it, you believe that Jesus ransomed us from sin, or at least from Adam's sin, by performing a 'perfect human sacrifice'. (I get this more from the JW literature than from your article, I might add.) However Scripture says in Psalm 49:7 "No man can redeem the life of another or give to God a ransom for him -- the ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough-- that he should live on forever and not see decay." So if Christ's sacrifice is *only* a human sacrifice, as the WatchTower teaches, then I fear that you are still in your sins, and must be thrown into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels, at the day of judgement. (Matt. 26:41). But thanks be to God, "In Christ all the fullness of the deity lives in bodily form," and as God and man he died on the cross for all of your sins, and all the sins of every sinner that was or is or will be -- including Adam. On the cross he cried, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me," showing that he suffered separation from his Father in punishment for all the sins of the world. So he lived and died as one of us, as our substitute, fulfilling the Law's demands for perfect holiness and obedience, and he also died as God, giving his sacrifice infinite value. God showed his acceptance of this sacrifice when he raised Jesus from the dead, declaring all men 'not guilty' of their sins. "He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification" Romans 4:25. It is interesting to note that Romans 10:9 says that God raised Jesus, but in John 2:19 Jesus said: "Destroy this temple [his body], and I will raise it again in three days." So if Jesus is not God, how could he raise himself from the dead? David H. Wagner a confessional Lutheran. "Upon the cross extended, See, world, thy Lord suspended, Thy Savior yields his breath. The Prince of Life from heaven Himself hath freely given To shame and blows and bitter death. "'Tis I who should be smitten, My doom should here be written: Bound hand and foot in hell. The fetters and the scourging, The floods around Thee surging, 'Tis I who have deserved them well. "The load Thou takest on Thee, That pressed so sorely on me, It crushed me to the ground. The cross for me enduring, The crown for me securing, My healing in Thy wounds is found." --O Welt, sieh hier dein Leben, selected verses. --Paul Gerhardt, 1648 My opinions and beliefs on this matter are disclaimed by The University of Houston.
stevep@uunet.uu.net (Steve Peterson) (11/23/90)
In article <Nov.19.23.37.33.1990.24630@athos.rutgers.edu> wagner@karazm.math.uh.edu (David Wagner) writes: > As I understand it, you believe that Jesus ransomed us from sin, or at >least from Adam's sin, by performing a 'perfect human sacrifice'. (I get this >more from the JW literature than from your article, I might add.) However >Scripture says in Psalm 49:7 |"No man can redeem the life of another | or give to God a ransom for him -- |the ransom for a life is costly, | no payment is ever enough-- |that he should live on forever | and not see decay." | |So if Christ's sacrifice is *only* a human sacrifice, as you say, |then I fear that you are still in your sins, and must be thrown into |the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels, at the day of |judgement. (Matt. 26:41). Hello David, I wanted to get back to you on your original questions. I first wanted to find out if it was my imagination or do I sense some hostility towards Jehovah's Witnesses? I notice you using some rather harsh words towards us and me in particular. I wanted to find out if we were continuing our conversation with a spirit of mildness or not. Whether anyone is going to suffer destruction is a matter between Jehovah and that individual. We all need to be careful in making judgemental statements related to who will enjoy salvation and who will not. Right? We both agree that Jesus was different than most men. None of us are without sin. But Jesus was. He existed in heaven before his life was transferred to the womb of Mary. He had no earthly father, so he didn't inherit Adamic sin. His Father was Almighty God Himself, Jehovah. The Scripture as Psa 49:7 is very true, and I agree with it. No normal man could redeem the life of another. It would take something more. Is Jesus just another man? No, He was different than any other. He was the perfect Son of God, without sin. So often people feel that Jehovah's Witness "don't believe in Jesus". The Scriptures are clear that Jesus was an extremely important individual and all of our salvation is based upon our faith in the value of his ransom sacrifice. The point that you and I don't agree on at this point is just how high was Jesus' "rank". You feel that he is Almighty God, or some part of God, as part of this Trinity. I believe that the Scriptures indicate that he is in actually 2nd in command, a seperate spirit creature who worships and serves the Almighty God Jehovah. Both of us agree that any human sacrifice wouldn't suffice, it takes something *much* more. We just don't agree on how much more. |But thanks be to God, "In Christ all the |fullness of the deity lives in bodily form," and as God and man he |died on the cross for all of your sins, and all the sins of every sinner |that was or is or will be -- including Adam. Here you are quoting Col 2:9, The King James reads: "In him [Christ] dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead [Greek, theotetos] bodily." (A similar thought is conveyed by the renderings in the NE, RS, JB, NAB, and Dy). However, other translations use the words "divine quality", "God's nature", instead of the word "Godhead"(NWT, AT, We, and CKW). It is very interesting to compare this with the Scripture at 2Pe 1:4 which reads: "Through these things he has freely given us the precious and very grand promises, that through these you may become sharers in the *divine nature*, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world through lust." Admittedly, not everyone offers the same interpretation of Col. 2:9. But what is in agreement with the rest of the inspired letter to the Colosians? Did Christ have in himself something that is his becuase he is God, part of a Trinity? Or is "the fullness" that dwells in him something that became his because of the decision of someone else? Col. 1:19 (KJ, Dy) say that all fullness dwelt in Christ because it "pleased the Father" for that to be the case NE says it was "by God's own choice" Consider the immediate context of Col. 2:9: In verse 8, readers are warned against being misled by those who advocate philosophy and human traditions. They are also told that in Christ "are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knnowledge" and are urged to "live in him" and to be "rooted and built up in him and established in the faith." (Verses 3,6,7) It is in him, and not in the originators of the teachers of human philosophy, that a certain precious "fullnes" dwells. Was the apostle Paul there saying that the "fulness" that was in Christ made Christ God himself? NOt according to Col. 3:1, where Christ is said to be "seated at the right hand of" *WHO*? *God*, not the Father. I always find it interesting that Jesus can stand in relation to God, but we don't ever hear of the Father standing in relation to God. If you like to look at the original language.... According to Liddell and Scott's Greek-English Lexicon, "theotes" (the nominative form, form which theotetos is derived) means "divinity, divine nature." (Oxford, 1968, page. 792) Being truly "divinity" or of "divine nature," doesn't make Jesus as the Son of God coequal and coeternal with the Father, and more that the fact that all humans share "humanity" or "human nature" makes them coequal or all the same age. |On the cross he cried, |"My God, My God, why have you forsaken me," showing that he suffered |separation from his Father in punishment for all the sins of the world. |So he lived and died as one of us, as our substitute, fulfilling the Law's |demands for perfect holiness and obedience, and he also died as God, giving |his sacrifice infinite value. I love this, you have God [Jesus] calling out to God that he has forsaken himself. It would be better for your argument if Jesus was calling out to his Father, but the verse says he is calling out to *his* God. I also enjoy you pointing that: |..................he also died as God.............. Seems to me that there is a Scripture that says that "God doesn't die". I'll get out my concordance if you call me on this(I am typing this without my reference materials) |It is interesting to note that Romans 10:9 says that God raised Jesus, |but in John 2:19 Jesus said: "Destroy this temple, and I will raise it |again in three days." | |So if Jesus is not God, how could he raise himself from the dead? I'll be glad to respond to this in my next post. I won't forget..... Best Regards...... Steve Peterson ---- stevep@cadence.com or ...!uunet!cadence!stevep
jchale@cbnewsh.att.com (Jeffrey C Hale) (11/29/90)
In article <Nov.23.04.49.42.1990.21021@athos.rutgers.edu>, cadence!stevep@uunet.uu.net (Steve Peterson) writes: [much of discussion deleted] > Is Jesus just another man? No, He > was different than any other. He was the perfect Son of God, without sin. So > often people feel that Jehovah's Witness "don't believe in Jesus". The > Scriptures are clear that Jesus was an extremely important individual and all > of our salvation is based upon our faith in the value of his ransom sacrifice. Steve, I am anxiously awaiting the "punchline!" Let me ask a few questions, then. 1. Is the official JW stance that salvation is found in Christ alone? 2. Can a JW know FOR CERTAIN while here on earth that he/she has salvation? (Cf. 1 John 5:13) 3. Are good works necessary for salvation? 4. If salvation is based on Christ's sacrifice ALONE, then why are many JWs so concerned with good works? Thanks in advance for considering these questions. I'd really like to get to the bottom of your previous statement! Jeff Hale attmail!jchale