[soc.religion.christian] On the interpretation of Is 53

christian@geneva.rutgers.edu (12/17/90)

There has been some discussion between David Wagner and Yaakov Kayman
about the interpretation of Is 53.  David claims that Is 53 was taken
to be about the Messiah until Rashi (12th Cent, I believe), who
supposedly invented the interpretation that it is referring to Israel
as a whole.  Yaakov does not believe any practicing Jew ever
interpreted Is 53 as about a suffering Messiah.  I told both of them I
would spend some time this weekend in our library and see if I could
settle things.  It turns out that our library's collection in Biblical
areas is wretched.  I found references to the major monographs, but we
don't have any of them.  However I think I have enough information to
give at least a summary of the picture.  Basically the truth appears
to be somewhere between the two.  In particular, it appears that both
a Messianic and a collective reading of Is 53 were made in the Jewish
community in the early Cent.'s C.E.  I don't have enough information
to be sure which was dominant, but both references I used left the
impression that before Rashi it was the Messianic one.  Unfortunately
the evidence I have is all in tertiary sources, because I couldn't get
hold of the secondary ones (and probably wouldn't be able to make
sense of the primary sources).  [Primary: actual documents from the
period; secondary: major scholarly studies citing the primary sources
in detail; tertiary, commentaries and other material citing secondary
sources].  I'm miffed that our library doesn't even have a good
collection of commentaries.  I'd hoped for at least the Anchor Bible,
as it normally deals with issues like this.

In case anyone wants to hunt down the secondary sources, the major
monographs on the subject are North, C. R., "The Suffering Servant in
..", and Peake, A. S. "The Servant of Yahweh".  Apparently North is
both more recent and somewhat better.  There's some indication that
the Jewish Encyclopedia and the Interperter's Bible may have useful
summaries.

For the collective interpretation as Israel:

Pfeiffer (in his Intro to the OT), cites Origen's woork Contra Celsum
(3rd Cent.) as indicating that the Jew he was opposing took the
collection interpretation.  Pfeiffer comments that this interpretation
"prevailed" with the work of Rashi and Ibn Ezra, but not that it
originated there.

H.J. Schoeps, in "Paul", cites J. Jeremias (in "Melanges offertes a M.
Goguel", 1950, p. 118ff) that the collective interpretation developed
first in Hellenistic Judaism.  Since Schoeps (who, by the way is a
Jewish scholar, and is my standard source for information about the
Jewish background for Paul) is writing about Paul, there's no reason
to expect him to spend much time on the collective interpretation.

For the Messianic interpretation:

First, it's important to understand that the Jewish concept of a
suffering messiah is not necessarily identical to the Christian one.
Schoeps quotes Billerbeck (a standard reference work that summarizes
Jewish interpretation relevant to the NT: Kommentar zum NT aus Talmud
und Midrash) II, 2, 273: "The ancient synagogue knows a suffering
Messiah [the Messiah ben David -- clh], to whom death was not
appointed, and it knows a dying Messiah, of whom no sufferings are
predicated, the Messiah ben Joseph".  Thus Schoeps wants to be clear
that the concept of a Messiah who dies as redeemer to save the world
is foreign to Judaism.

The earliest evidence he cites for a Messianic reading of Is 53 is the
apocalypses of Enoch, Baruch, and IV Ezra, though I recall some
suggestions that the LXX implies a Messianic reading.

Schoeps believes that the Messianic interpretation was present in the
rabbincal tradition from early times, however generally the texts are
from the 3rd or 4th Cent.  For earlier evidence he cites Justin (Dial
89), which implies that the Jew Trypho took a Messianic reading.
Also, the Hodayoth of Qumran applied Is 53 to the "teacher of
righteousness".  For the early rabbincal evidence, he cites G. H.
Dalman "Der Leidende Messias nach der Lehre der Synagoge in este
nachchristlichen Jahrtausend", and H. Fischel's unpublished study
summarized in HUCA, 1943/44, pp 53ff.

Here is a partial list of rabbinical citations: Sanh. 88a (early 3rd
Cent.), Sanh. 98a (Joshua ben Levi), Sanh. 93b (R. Alexandria), Midr.
Teh. 2, 7, etc. (Huna and Idi).  He comments that the sufferings of
the Messiah is a favorite theme of haggada.  As evidence of the
earlier comment that these references do not extend to a dying
redeemer, he cites Targum Jonathan (5th Cent., but with an indication
in Sanh. 94b that the tradition was known to R. Joseph ben Hiyya, ca.
300) that applies Is 53:12 to the Messiah, but tones down the wording
so that there is no serious danger of death.


Finally, I'd like to comment that the Messiah and Israel as a whole
are not the only possibilities.  I saw a study by Orlinsky proposing
that the reference is to the suffering of the prophet himself.  In
this interpretation, the suffering is not vicarious, but simply a
result of the fact that as one of Israel he suffers along with his
nation.  This is only one of about a half dozen interpretations (the
most interesting of which is that the suffering is of the
non-Israelite nations watching the Exile).

kutz@cis.ohio-state.edu (Kenneth J. Kutz) (12/24/90)

In article <Dec.16.17.33.08.1990.20524@athos.rutgers.edu>, christian@geneva.rutgers.edu writes:

> Finally, I'd like to comment that the Messiah and Israel as a whole
> are not the only possibilities.  I saw a study by Orlinsky proposing
> that the reference is to the suffering of the prophet himself.  In
> this interpretation, the suffering is not vicarious, but simply a
> result of the fact that as one of Israel he suffers along with his
> nation.

The message at church last Sunday was on Isaiah 53.  This interpretation
came up in the message as an example of a bad interpretion.  Isaiah
53:9 says no deceit was found in the Servant's mouth - something Isaiah
says is not true for himself.

 
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