[soc.religion.christian] Does the Bible prohibit Polygamy ?

jmoon@lehi3b15.csee.lehigh.edu (Jonggu Moon [890911]) (01/26/91)

Where in the Bible does it say that we may not have more than 
one spouse ?

I know of Leviticus 18:18 but that's more of a prohibition against
marying a relative.

^>*<^jon

chappell@symcom.math.uiuc.edu (Glenn Chappell) (01/29/91)

In article <Jan.25.23.35.41.1991.1355@athos.rutgers.edu> jmoon@lehi3b15.csee.lehigh.edu (Jonggu Moon [890911]) writes:
>Where in the Bible does it say that we may not have more than 
>one spouse ?

The easy answer to that question is "nowhere". There is never a blanket
prohibition of polygamy in the Bible, although it is never spoken of
highly. Here are some verses on the subject (all quotes are from the NIV):

Genesis 2:24: "For this reason a man will leave his father and
mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh."
This verse, while certainly not prohibiting polygamy, does present a
picture of a monogamous relationship. Jesus referred to this verse in
Matthew 19:5 and Paul referred to it in Ephesians 5:31.

Monogamy is required for church officers:
Elders/Overseers/Bishops - 1 Timothy 3:2 & Titus 1:6
Deacons - 1 Timothy 3:12

In Deuteronomy 17:17 it says that kings of Israel "must not take many
wives...." Are there any Hebrew experts out there who can say whether
this prohibits *all* polygamy, or merely excessive polygamy?

The first recorded polygamist in the Bible is not mentioned favorably:
Lamech - Genesis 4

There are several examples of problems with rival wives/concubines:
Sarai & Hagar - Genesis 16
Leah & Rachel - Genesis 29-30
Hannah & Penninah - 1 Samuel 1

Deuteronomy 21:15-17 talks about problems that may result when a man
with two wives loves one more than the other.

Finally, a question:
The "levirate marriage" law in Deuteronomy 25:5-6 requires a man to
marry his brother's widow if the brother died childless. Now, what if
the man already had a wife? Would this be a case where the Bible, far
from prohibiting polygamy, actually *requires* it?

It is noteworthy that this law seems to have somewhat of an "escape
clause". Deuteronomy 25:7-10 talks about what to do in the case of a man
who refuses to marry his brother's widow. It talks about a ceremony
apparently intended to disgrace the man; it involves the widow taking off
the man's sandal and spitting in his face. Interestingly, at least some
Jewish groups nowadays use this ceremony (or a variant of it) simply as
a way to absolve the man of any responsibility to marry the widow, and
not as any sort of disgrace at all.

				GGC  <><

BINDNER@auvm.auvm.edu (01/30/91)

It only implies it, as it is customary at the time of Christ
"A man and his wife are made one by God."  However, Chisrt called
Abraham and the patriarchs living when he rebuked the Sadducees.
They were polygamists.  If it had been inherently wrong would they
be among the living?  Also, the woman at the well had had 5 husbands,
though not concurrently.  Each was counted as such by the Lord.

I find polygamy and polyandry inherently
more acceptable than divorcing a spouse and forcing them onto
welfare (through non-payment of child support or a low level of
child support).  Also, some prophesies of the end times say that
there will be an accute shortage of men.  I think in this context
polyandry may be permissible.

Michael

ph600fev@sdcc14.ucsd.edu (Robert O'Barr) (01/30/91)

In article <Jan.29.03.16.58.1991.23339@athos.rutgers.edu> chappell@symcom.math.uiuc.edu (Glenn Chappell) writes:
>In article <Jan.25.23.35.41.1991.1355@athos.rutgers.edu> jmoon@lehi3b15.csee.lehigh.edu (Jonggu Moon [890911]) writes:
>>Where in the Bible does it say that we may not have more than 
>>one spouse ?
>
>The easy answer to that question is "nowhere". There is never a blanket
>prohibition of polygamy in the Bible, although it is never spoken of
>highly. Here are some verses on the subject (all quotes are from the NIV):
>

>In Deuteronomy 17:17 it says that kings of Israel "must not take many
>wives...." Are there any Hebrew experts out there who can say whether
>this prohibits *all* polygamy, or merely excessive polygamy?
>
>				GGC  <><

I don't have the Bible in front of me right now but I would refer
you to the following.

Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (or at least two of the three) had more
than one wife at the same time.  Christ on occasion said things to
imply that these men were in paradise, or would rule in the kingdom
of heaven.  Never does the scriptures condemn their actions.  Never
have I heard a Christian claim that the house of Israel and the Lord
himself came from an illigitimate marraige relationship.

What did the phophet Nathan? say to David.  He told him a story
about a man who had several sheep and another that had but one most
precious lamb.  Even though the one had so many, he desired the lamb
of the poor man and took it by force.  David was angry upon hearing
this.  Nathan told him that he was this man.  He tells him that the
Lord had given him his wives and would have given him many more.

Solaman (even while he had many wives) was highly favored in the
sight of the Lord.  His downfall was that he began to marry with the
daughters of the "heathens".  An act the Lord had stricly forbidden
him. 

Sorry about the lack of documentation for these claims.
If you like, I can post the references at a future time.

Robert

ph600fev@sdcc14.ucsd.edu (Robert O'Barr) (02/03/91)

In article <Jan.30.04.34.09.1991.16543@athos.rutgers.edu> ph600fev@sdcc14.ucsd.edu (Robert O'Barr) writes:

>I don't have the Bible in front of me right now but I would refer
>you to the following.
>
>Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (or at least two of the three) had more
>than one wife at the same time.  Christ on occasion said things to
>imply that these men were in paradise, or would rule in the kingdom
>of heaven.  Never does the scriptures condemn their actions.  Never
>have I heard a Christian claim that the house of Israel and the Lord
>himself came from an illigitimate marraige relationship.
>
  See Matt 8:11, Luke 16:22, Matt 22:32 

Matt 8:11   

     And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west,
and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom
of heaven.

>What did the phophet Nathan? say to David.  He told him a story
>about a man who had several sheep and another that had but one most
>precious lamb.  Even though the one had so many, he desired the lamb
>of the poor man and took it by force.  David was angry upon hearing
>this.  Nathan told him that he was this man.  He tells him that the
>Lord had given him his wives and would have given him many more.
>
As to the fact that David had several wives before Bath-Sheba,
   See 2 Sam. 2:2 and  2 Sam 3:2-5

2 Sam. 12:7-8

     And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man.  Thus saith the Lord
God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered
thee out of the hand of Saul;  And I gave thee thy master's house,
and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and game thee the house of
Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would
moreover have given unto thee such and such things.

>Solomon (even while he had many wives) was highly favored in the
>sight of the Lord.  His downfall was that he began to marry with the
>daughters of the "heathens".  An act the Lord had stricly forbidden
>him. 

see 1 Kings 11, This clearly identifies his downfall being caused by
the unrighteousness not the number of his wives.

   Often the Bible refers to the marriage relationship being one man
and one woman.  This doesn't allow us to rationalize that the only
marriages the Lord has ever permitted are monogomous.  Clearly the
Bible idicates that at times the Lord did allow and perhaps
encouraged polygomous families.  If Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were
really adulterous sinners, I don't know why Moses, Paul, and Jesus
always used them as examples of righteousness.

Robert

w25y@vax5.cit.cornell.edu (02/03/91)

A Mormon acquaintance of Samuel Clemens, so the story goes, challanged him
to cite anything in the bible that forbid polygamy.  He replied, "No man
can serve two masters."

OK, so it's facetious, but I think that on another level it is relevant.

                   -- Paul Ciszek
                      W25Y@CRNLVAX5               Bitnet
                      W25Y@VAX5.CIT.CORNELL.EDU   Internet
                      UUNET!CORNELL!VAX5!W25Y     UUCP
"The trouble with normal is it always gets worse."  --Bruce Cockburn

brendan@batserver.cs.uq.oz.au (Brendan Mahony) (02/06/91)

You might try some passages from the New Testament (why do you guys
reach for the Old Testament so quickly?).

1 Timothy 3

A church leader must be without fault; he must have only one wife

Ipso facto more than one wife is a fault. Paul is not all that keen on
having this many.

--
Brendan Mahony                   | brendan@batserver.cs.uq.oz       
Department of Computer Science   | heretic: someone who disgrees with you
University of Queensland         | about something neither of you knows
Australia                        | anything about.

marcoh@lccma.bos.locus.com (Mark Heroux) (02/11/91)

In article <Feb.6.04.23.27.1991.26395@athos.rutgers.edu> you write:
>You might try some passages from the New Testament (why do you guys
>reach for the Old Testament so quickly?).
>
>1 Timothy 3
>
>A church leader must be without fault; he must have only one wife
>
>Ipso facto more than one wife is a fault. Paul is not all that keen on
>having this many.
>

Your argument seems to hinge on the way 1 Timothy 3:2 is punctuated.
I get this idea because of your ipso facto implication of the fault.

It is worth noting, however, that the Greek manuscripts from which 
the New Testament is translated not only have no punctuation, but
words are not even separated by spaces.  Any punctuation you find
in an English version of the New Testament has been "interpreted"
into the text by the translators.

This leaves room for the interpretation of 1 Timothy 3:2 which appears
in the New International Version of the New Testament:  "...must be above
reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable,
hospitable, able to teach".  This interpretation communicates to me a laundry
list of desirable qualities for leaders, each characteristic being able to
stand alone.  I am not arguing that my pet version is right and yours
is not; rather, I have merely attempted to show that there is room for 
a varied interpretation of individual texts.  The conclusion that
"[having] more than one wife is a fault" is a little stronger than is
warranted merely by 1 Timothy 3:2 in my opinion.

1 Corinthians 7:2 (NIV), however, makes a much stronger case.  It says, 
"...each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband".
Could someone with a version other than the NIV shed a little more light
on this scripture?

Marco
-------------------------
E-mail:  marcoh@locus.com

ta00est@unccvax.uncc.edu (elizabeth s tallant) (02/14/91)

Note that Jesus said, "He who divorces his wife and marries another, save
fornication, committs adultery."

Note that divorce in and of itself does not constitute adultery in this
verse.  Instead, it is the remarriage that constitutes adultery.  To me,
common sense dictates that if it is adulterous to divorce a wife and
marry another, then it must be adulterous to marry another without
divorcing her.