[sci.military] Failures of Beretta M-9 Pistols

military-request@att.att.com (Bill Thacker) (11/18/89)

From: military-request@att.att.com (Bill Thacker)

[Posted anonymously at the author's request. - Bill ]

==========

>>...An investigation revealed that all 5 had been using very hot loads, more
>> than was recommended by Beretta.  The General Services Admin. has required
>> that Beretta retrofit all M9 units with a "slide catch device"....
>>
>> ...no plans to change the civilian 92F, and has no concerns about liability
>> problems, because they feel the entire problem is a result of improper
>> ammunition.

I have real problems believing Beretta press releases & statements.  Why
would GSA require Beretta to fix the gun if it was an "ammo. problem"?

Entirely due to "hot" loads?  Then explain:

   The M9 was specified by the government to be compatible with the 9mm
   NATO STANAG, which specifies performance standards which *require* it
   to be "hot" enough to function submachine guns.  While some "unknown"
   ammunition had been believed to have been fired through the five
   weapons, they were supposed to be able to withstand a steady diet of
   SMG-grade loads.  The only ammunition that one could expect to find
   that would be "hotter" than SMG-loads would be "proof" loads.  

   In a similar manner, let's not confuse ourselves by calling subsonic
   ammo. the offenting "hot" loads.  While it is an easy mistake to make
   when you look *only* at the bullet weight, you are ignoring momentum &
   kinetic energy laws: when you back off a cartridge's velocity so as to
   make it subsonic, you virtually have to increase the bullet weight.  If
   you don't, not only are you decreasing your lethality, but (more
   importantly) you're decreasing your weapon's operability because there
   may then be insufficient energy to cycle the weapon.

   Beretta's "hot ammo" explanation fails to explain how the government
   was able to fire M9's to destruction using only M882 NATO ammunition.  

   It also fails to explain why there is a bimodal distribution to the
   number of rounds to failure (one group at <7K rds & one at >20K rds)
   ... and why the problem appears to be limited to one production period.


Disclaimer:  Standard+.  I do not speak for my employer or anyone other
	     than myself in an unofficial capacity and the above text
	     represents only my opinion.  To the best of my knowledge,
	     the above represents unclassified and non-sensitive
	     information; no information described herein has not been
	     represented to me as being classified or sensitive or from
	     FOUO or classified sources.  I am not speaking as an
	     authority on any subject. *Beware of Berreta proganda*