[comp.music] Perception of tone

mgresham@artsnet.UUCP (Mark Gresham) (07/04/90)

>I probably should not have included this sentence in my quotation.  The point
>which Handel seems to find most important is that the auditory signal is broken
>down into frequency components in the cochlea and stays broken down in that
>form all the way to the cerebral cortex.  Thus, the brain has no way of
>distinguishing speech stimuli from music stimuli until the cortex kicks
>in.

What I would find most interesting is the what, how, and why once
the cortex *does* kick in.

(And why hasn't all of this crossposted to comp.music so it will
land in the lap of that "semantics/no-semantics of music"/"music
is/isn't a language" discussion, where it might help.   Hence, I
crosspost.)

I contend (in my typical intuitive manner :-)) that the
distinction would not be made until assimilated into a different
"kind" of knowledge than it was before skidding into the cortex.
So let's hear something about what happens to the stimuli at that
point.

Cheers,

--Mark

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Mark Gresham  ARTSNET  Norcross, GA, USA
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or:          artsnet!mgresham@gatech.edu
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