[sci.philosophy.tech] Popper's experiment criticized

lew@ihlpa.ATT.COM (Lew Mammel, Jr.) (08/10/87)

I've been dabbling in some literature lately and since Karl Popper is
mentioned so frequently ( on the net and elsewhere ) I thought I'd be in
for some good stuff when I started his Quantum_Theory_and_the_Schism_in_Physics
which was written some years ago but only recently published, according
to the prefatory material.

It starts off interestingly enough with a personal view of the emerging
philosophical problems in QM from the thirties through the fifties.
Popper name drops a bit and rather coyly suggests he may have been
influential in the highest circles of thinking (i.e. Einstein, Bohr, et. al.)
even though he was just a camp follower, as it were.

He states that he anticipated the Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen paradox with
a version of his own, which was however fundamentally flawed - a misfortune
which Popper freely confesses to, but seems not to have learned from.
I say this because of his suggestion in this work of yet another experiment
designed to flush out the error of the Copenhagen Interpretation, or the
Popper version thereof. I posted Popper's proposal as described in his
book two days ago. Briefly, it is an attempt to cause dispersion in the
measurements of one particle's position by localizing another particle
which is correlated with it through an earlier interaction.

The way Popper describes it, he seems to be claiming that it would
be a way to transmit a faster-than-light signal, since one could 
modulate the dispersion of a series of measurements at one location by
adjusting the width of a slit at another location.

I'm flabbergasted that someone so evidently prestigious could be
left so far behind in his understanding of the most elementary rules
of QM analysis.  In the first place, the Copenhagen Interpretation
is not a splinter theory of QM, but just ( of course ) an interpretation.
So when Popper says that his experiment would disprove the Copenhagen
Interpretation, he's really saying that it would disprove QM. The
thoughtful student can have confidence from the start that Popper
is all wet.

But instead of rejecting Popper's proposal on a priori grounds, we
may attempt to isolate the particular error of reasoning. I think
that it lies in the failure to adequately consider the initial
two-particle state. Briefly stated,  Popper fails to consider the
uncertainty relation between the position and momentum of the center
of mass of the interacting particles. This is easy to to do, I think,
because usually most of the analysis is done within the center-of-mass
system and the system itself is regarded as an uninteresting free particle.
When you start talking about the particles' positions w.r.t. the
laboratory frame, though, you'd better not forget about the motion
of the center of mass.

Consider the usual coordinate transformation:

	r = ( r1 - r2 )/2

	R = ( r1 + r2 )/2

A 2-particle state, |A>, has wave-functions, <r1, r2|A> and <r, R|A>
in the two coordinate systems. We usually separate the Hamiltonian
in the latter system to get:

	<r,R|A> = <r|Ar><R|AR>

In other words, we consider the 2-particle state to be the tensor
product of the center-of-mass single particle state, |AR>, and the
reduced mass single particle state, |Ar>. What Popper is doing is
implicitly assuming that:

	<R|AR> = delta( R )    ( dirac delta function )

This is what allows the inference of one particle's position from
the other's. Note though, that this implies infinite uncertainty
in the momentum of the center of mass, so we lose the ability to
correlate the trajectories of the independent particles. This is
what I think Popper is basically overlooking.


	Lew Mammel, Jr.