kevin@calvin.ee.cornell.edu (Kevin Tubbs) (01/27/89)
My Dad swears that about 10 years ago, he was calling a salesman somewhere.
At the same time, the salesman decided to call my Dad. Both had apparently
completed dialing, when their call "met in the middle" somehow! Is this
really possible? Or do you suppose one of them picked up and dialed without
listening for dial tone, when in reality he was dialing into the other guy's
ear? My Dad seemed to think that each of them had gotten dial tone and
dialed normally.
BTW, this was a long distance (cross country) call.
Any ideas?
Kevin Tubbs, 5152 Upson, Cornell University, Ithaca NY, 14853 (607) 255-8703
kevin@calvin.ee.cornell.edu {uunet,rochester}!cornell!calvin!kevin