[comp.ai] what is this thing called `free will'

sean@aipna.ed.ac.uk (Sean Matthews) (05/18/88)

Arguments for `free will' from itrospection boil down to
`I think I have free will because I think I have free will'
which is not even worthy of the label `tautology'.

The (contradictory?) arguements go:
I  experience what I believe to be `free will' all the time
since I have yet to experience myself doing something In spite of
my desiring to do the opposite, even though I am not subject to any
coercion.[1]

I have demonstrated `free will' since I wanted to drink Coca Cola,
but instead drank Pepsi Cola (That I also wanted to prove I had free
will is overlooked).

People often seem to confuse an impulse to perversity for `free will'.

There are two problems:

1. does anyone have the slightest idea of what `free will' looks like.

2. perfect introspection is a logical impossibility[2], so anyone who
   invokes it allows their `mind' the sort of logical transcendance that
   Thomas Aquinas explicitly denied his god.  This seems to be
   arrogating rather a lot.

Se\'an Matthews                   
Dept. of Artificial Intelligence JANET:sean%sin@uk.ac.ed.aiva
University of Edinburgh          ARPA: sean%uk.ac.ed.aiva@nss.cs.ucl.ac.uk
80 South Bridge                  UUCP: ...!mcvax!ukc!aiva!sean
Edinburgh, EH1 1HN, Scotland     

[1] I don't know enough about psychiatric medicine to say whether it
would be possible for a schitzophrenic to have an experence
superficially akin to this---two aware `minds' in one brain, only one
of which is exercising control---but the possibility raises
interesting questions which can be, and are, dealt with in other places.

[2] if a `mind' x had perfect introspection, it would need to contain
within itself a complete model of itself, as well as the structures
which are used to model x and to reason about it, but these would need
to be inside x and therefore would be in the model.  This is just a
version of the barber paradox.

PS. This has all probably been said before, but I didn't read it; if
it has, I apologise for wasting your time.

gilbert@cs.glasgow.ac.uk (Gilbert Cockton) (05/19/88)

In article <38@aipna.ed.ac.uk> sean@uk.ac.ed.aipna.UUCP (Sean Matthews) writes:
>2. perfect introspection is a logical impossibility[2]
That doesn't make it impossible, just beyond comprehension through logic.
Now, if you dive into Philosophy of Logic, you'll find that many other
far more mundane phenomena aren't capturable within FOPC, hence all
this work on non-standard logics.  Slow progress here though.

Does anyone seriously hold with certainty that logical impossibility
is equivalent to commonsense notions of falsehood and impossibility?
Don't waste time with similarities, such as Kantian analytic statements
such as all "Bachelors are unmarried", as these rest completely on language
and can thus often be translated into FOPC to show that bachelor(X) AND
married(X) is logically impossible, untrue, really impossible, ...

Any physicists around here use logic?
-- 
Gilbert Cockton, Department of Computing Science,  The University, Glasgow
	gilbert@uk.ac.glasgow.cs <europe>!ukc!glasgow!gilbert

		The proper object of the study of Mankind is Man, not machines

sean@aipna.ed.ac.uk (Sean Matthews) (05/21/88)

in article <1193@crete.cs.glasgow.ac.uk>
gilbert@cs.glasgow.ac.uk (Gilbert Cockton) writes
>In article <38@aipna.ed.ac.uk> {I} write
>>2. perfect introspection is a logical impossibility[2]
>That doesn't make it impossible, just beyond comprehension through logic.
>Now, if you dive into Philosophy of Logic, you'll find that many other
>far more mundane phenomena aren't capturable within FOPC, hence all
>this work on non-standard logics.  Slow progress here though.

Mr Cockton is confusing one fairly restricted logic with the whole
plethora I was referring to.  There are logics specifically designed for
dealing with problems of self reference (cf Craig Smory\'nski in
Handbook of philosophical logic Vol2 `modal logic and self-reference')
and they place very clear restrictions on what is possible in terms of
self-referential systems and what is not; there has not been `Slow
progress here'.

> anyone seriously hold with certainty that logical impossibility
>is equivalent to commonsense notions of falsehood and impossibility?

I freely admit that I don't understand what he means here, unless he
is making some sort of appeal to metaphysical concepts of truth apart
from demonstrability and divorced from the concept of even analytic
falsehood in any way.  There are Western philosophers (even good ones)
who invoke metaphysics to prove such things as `God exists' (I feel
that God exists, therefore God exists---Rousseau), or even `God does
not exist' (I feel that God does not exist, therefore God does not
exist---Nietztche).

Certainly facts may be `true' irrespective of whether we can `prove'
them (the classical example is `this statement is not provable')
though this again depends on what your idea of `truth' is. And there
are different types of `truth' as he points out; any synthetic `truth'
is always tentative, a black sheep can be discovered at any time,
disposing of the previous ``truth'' (two sets of quotation marks) that
all sheep were a sort of muddy light grey, whereas analytic `truth' is
`true' for all time (cf Euclids `Elements').  But introspective `truth's
are analytic, being purely mental; we have a finite base of knowledge
(what we know about ourselves), and a set of rules that we apply to
get new knowledge about the system; if the rules or the knowledge
change then the deductions change, but the change is like changing
Euclid's fifth postulate; the conclusions differ but the conclusions
from the original system, though they may contradict the new
conclusions, are still true, since they are prefixed with different
axioms, and any system that posits perfect introspection is going to
contain contradictions (cf Donald Perlis: `Meta in logic' in
`Meta-level reasoning and reflection', North Holland for a quick
survey).

What happens in formal logic is that we take a subset of possible
concepts (modus ponens, substitution, a few tautologies, some modal
operators perhaps) and see what happens; if we can generate a
contradiction in this (tiny) subset of accepted `truth's, then we can
generate a contradiction in the set of all accepted `truth's using
rational arguments this should lead us to reevaluate what we hold as
axioms.  These arguments could be carried out in natural language, the
symbols, which perhaps seem to divorce the whole enterprise from
reality, are not necessary, they only make things easier; after all
Aristotle studied logic fairly successfully without them.

Se\'an Matthews                   
Dept. of Artificial Intelligence JANET:sean%sin@uk.ac.ed.aiva
University of Edinburgh          ARPA: sean%uk.ac.ed.aiva@nss.cs.ucl.ac.uk
80 South Bridge                  UUCP: ...!mcvax!ukc!aiva!sean
Edinburgh, EH1 1HN, Scotland     

PS I apologise beforehand for any little liberties I may have taken with
the finer points of particular philosophies mentioned above.

shani@TAURUS.BITNET (05/24/88)

In article <38@aipna.ed.ac.uk>, sean@aipna.BITNET writes:
> 1. does anyone have the slightest idea of what `free will' looks like.

It doesn't look like anything! It is just the knowing that you are a
player character. I know I am! do you?

O.S.

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I am what I think, therefore I am what I am

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