ele@cbnewsm.ATT.COM (eugene.l.edmon) (01/07/90)
The current Sci Amer article by Searle is my first exposure to him. It appears that in Axiom 2 he equates mental contents with semantics such that you cannot have a machine with any semantic capability that did not have a mind. Is this a correct interpretation? It seems to me that you can have mental contents without semantics and can demonstrate at least some semantic processing without mental contents (subliminal perception type stuff). -- gene edmon ele@cbnewsm.ATT.COM