jeenglis@nunki.usc.edu (Joe English) (10/01/89)
It's come up recently in comp.lang.c that ' (a && b) = 1' is illegal not because 'a && b' isn't semantically an lvalue, but because the *grammar* is used to determine lvalueness. I'm assuming that this isn't the case in C++, since class_of_a::operator && might return a reference. So my question is, is the C++ grammar, minus the C++ extensions, different from the C grammar in any way that would change the meaning of any expression? That's probably an intractable problem; a better question would be "What other differences are there between the two grammars, and are any of them significant?" --Joe English jeenglis@nunki.usc.edu