ray@rochester.ARPA (Ray Frank) (10/16/86)
In the paper today, an article told of how a judge, John Fromer, overturned a guilty verdict brought in by a jury. The judge's claim was that the jury didn't have enough evidence to convict this defendent. Can a judge do that? This defendent was found guilty by a jury of his peers. Isn't this person, under American law, then legally guilty? Can a judge also find a defendent guilty if the jury finds the defendent not guilty? Another question, can judges be sued for mal-practice the same as doctors who screw up can? For example, when judges turn convicted felons back on to the street to kill, rape, murder, and whatever again, can the victims sue the judge for mal-practice? One more interesting question concerning lawyers. We all know how lawyers urge us all to get contracts in writting, especially when money is involved. Has anyone ever gotten a lawyer to sign a contract stating their fees for a particular service, such as a divorce or buying a house, or whatever? Lawyers simply don't sign contracts. A friend of mine is currently taking her lawyer to small claims court for being charged twice what was agreed upon for her divorce. ray