christian@topaz.UUCP (03/02/87)
Since this is my first posting to this newsgroup, let me begin by saying that I have enjoyed following the postings in this group for the last three or so months. It is refreshing to have a place where Christians can discuss their faith openly in an atmosphere of acceptance which is not available in the world at large. Now down to business. I have been watching the postings concerning Vasu's questions and I felt like I had to get my two cents worth in concerning the interpretation of Isaiah 7:14. It is true that there is great controversy over the interpretation of this verse. The Hebrew word 'almah' which is used in this verse can be translated as 'virgin' or 'maiden'. In either case, it is always used to refer to an unmarried young girl. There is one major reason (other than the context of the passage which implies that a 'miraculous' sign will be given to the House of Juday) why a translation of 'almah' to 'virgin' is warranted. About the year 250 B.C., the leading Jewish rabbi's of the day undertook to translate the Hebrew scriptures into Greek for the benefit of the many Greek speaking Jew's of that era. The result is an Old Testament translation called the Septuagint. In the Septuagint, the Greek word 'parthenos' is used to translate the Hebrew word 'almah'. This Greek word can only mean 'virgin'. Had they wanted to translate the word to mean 'maiden', they could have done so as there is a separate Greek word which has this meaning. What conclusion do I draw from this? At least one group of Jewish scholars who were not tainted by a desire to discredit the messianic claims of Jesus and his followers felt that the sign signified that a virgin would conceive. For those of you who would like to study more about the fulfilment by Jesus of Old Testament messianic prophecy, I would suggest as an introduction the book "The Promise" by Hal Lindsey (in paperback from Bantam Books at about $3.50). It contains a discussion of the major messianic prophecies which Jesus fulfilled and would be a good introduction to the subject for anyone who does not have an academic background in Christian studies. May the Lord bless you all, Shane Bruce (bruce@topaz.rutgers.edu)
warren@pluto.UUCP (Warren Burstein) (03/17/87)
[This is in response to the discussion on Is. 7:14. A number of people claimed that the Greek term "parthenos", meaning virgin, was introduced by the Greek translation known as the Septuagint.] The original text of the Septuagint as composed in Alexandria is not available, so we can't know what the Rabbis wrote. There are several, divirging, editions of the Septuagint in existence. To my knowledge, they were all prepared by Christians. -- /|/~\~~\ |__/__/_/ | / [The standard edition of the Septuagint was prepared by a Christian. There are some other versions from the 4th Cent. about which there are scholarly arguments. There are quotations by Jewish writers such as Josephus. There are substantial fragments from the 2nd Cent. BC, which obviously are not Christian. I don't know whether Is 7:14 appears in any sources that are provably non-Christian. I have never heard of any scholar claiming that "parthenos" was a Christian interpolation, but I don't claim to have read all of the literature. --clh ]