throop@cs.utexas.edu (David Throop) (01/22/91)
Has women's sexual responsiveness changed since prehistoric times?
Have our sexual practices?
Most women do not come to orgasm from intercourse alone. For most
women, intercourse must either be preceeded by or augmented by other
clitoral stimulation. Has it always been this way?
I think of cunnilingus and manual stimulation of one's partner as
civilized acts. I find it hard to believe that stone age people
practiced them -- at least, I've heard no reports of these practices
among chimpanzees. I don't know that anthropoligist have enquired
about these practices among primitive cultures.
And cunnilingus leaves no fossil remains.
But it seems really odd to think that women would have evolved a
physiological capacity for orgasm, but have evolved it in such a way
that it couldn't be triggered (except rarely) by practices that didn't
arise until the advent of civilization.
Could most prehistoric women come to orgasm from penetration alone?
If so, why can so few modern women? If not, did prehistoric people
augment penetration in a manner similar to our modern practices? And if
prehistoric women mostly didn't have orgasm when mating, why did the
capacity for female orgasm evolve?
David Throop