[talk.philosophy.misc] On Quoted Material

desj@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (David desJardins) (09/25/86)

In article <10223@cca.UUCP> g-rh@cca.UUCP (Richard Harter) writes:
>In article <15634@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> desj@brahms.UUCP (David desJardins) writes:
>>In article <346@unc.unc.UUCP> gallmeis@unc.UUCP (Bill Gallmeister) writes:
>>>
>>>3. The universe is uncharacterizable in its entirety by Man, because
>>>	we are only Man, and when we characterize a thing, we
>>>	bring our own bias into the matter.
>>
>>   There is no evidence to support your statement (that the universe is
>>uncharacterizable), and there is substantial evidence to the contrary
>>(every successful prediction of science provides such evidence).
>
>All too often people (and Rich Rosen) quote material from other people
>and then comment on the quoted material in a way that does address what
>was actually said.  Our example for today is:
>
>Number 3 is quite blatant -- Gallmeister says "uncharacterizable in its
>entirety by Man" and David renders it as "uncharacterizable".
>Gallmeister asserts a certain type of limitation on knowledge and
>David translates this into an assertion that no knowledge at all is
>possible.

   When we quote material, the *purpose* of this quoting is to put our
statements into context.  Thus, it seems (or at least seemed) perfectly
acceptable to repeat the arguments of the original poster in a more
abbreviated form, since the original quotation is *right there*, if a
more detailed statement of the original poster's views is desired.  This
seems *especially* clear in a parenthetical remark, which in ordinary
usage serves only to specify the antecedent of the preceding noun; in
this case the noun, "your [Gallmeister's] statement," seems sufficient
in itself, given that one and only one statement of Gallmeister is quoted
immediately above!
   It seems *obvious* to me that when I write "uncharacterizable," in
the context of the above quotation, that I am using the word in the
same way as in the original quotation.  It seems, therefore, unnecessary
to *repeat* the exact words of the original posting, in order to desig-
nate the statement to which I am referring.
   Nevertheless, I seem to have been mistaken, since Mr. Harter was
unable to discerm my meaning.  I will, therefore, repeat my statement,
in a sufficiently verbose form as to make its meaning perfectly evident
to all readers:

	There is no evidence to support Mr. Gallmeister's statement
	(that the universe is uncharacterizable in its entirety by
	Man), and there is substantial evidence to the contrary
	(every successful prediction of science provides such evidence).

   Since this semantic clarification was of such importance to Mr. Harter
that he thought it appropriate to post on the matter, I felt it was only
proper for me to do the same.

>>>2. Man has rules and the universe -- just kind of works.  In reality, there
>>>	is no E, or M, or C, and certainly no "squaring".  These are
>>>	labels man uses to define our universe.  They are only true so
>>>	far as we can see today.
>>
>>   There is a name for the opposite belief -- that the behavior of the
>>universe can be understood.  It is called 'science.'  Understandably,
>>therefore, those of us who consider ourselves 'scientists' don't go
>>along with your opinion as expressed above.
>
>David's response in #2 is also unresponsive.  Gallmeister makes
>the legitimate observation that our descriptions of the universe
>are different in character from the universe itself, and David reads
>him as saying that it is impossible to understand the universe.

   It should be obvious (except perhaps to Mr. Harter) that I disagree
with Gallmeister's "legitimate observation" (is this Mr. Harter's idea
of an unbiased description of the statement in question?).  Neither
Gallmeister nor Mr. Harter has produced evidence that the behavior of
the universe is substantially different in character from our descrip-
tions of that behavior.  It seems that from such a belief it must
necessarily follow that it is impossible to understand the behavior
of the universe; if the universe does indeed behave in a manner that
does not correspond to any description that we can make, how can we
expect to understand that behavior that cannot be described??
   Further, if the behavior of the universe is in a manner which cannot
be described, then what reason can we have to believe that the universe
will in the future behave in one manner rather than in another?  Scien-
tific belief is inextricably based on belief in induction, that the
universe will continue to behave in the manner that it has been observed
to behave.  This itself is a "rule"; if the universe does not behave
according to such rules, then science itself is without justification
or foundation.

   -- David desJardins

P.S. I have regretfully refrained from defending myself in net.sf-lovers.
I can only wonder why Mr. Harter thought it appropriate to attack me there.

marty@ism780c.UUCP (Marty Smith) (09/26/86)

Organization:

In article <15807@ucbvax.... (David desJardins) defends himself:
>In article <10223@cca.... (Richard Harter) writes:
>>In article <15634@ucbvax... (David desJardins) defends science:
>>>In article <346@unc.... (Bill Gallmeister) writes:

[one-sided, bloody battle deleted]

>P.S. I have regretfully refrained from defending myself in net.sf-lovers.
>I can only wonder why Mr. Harter thought it appropriate to attack me there.

This is not a war.

					      Marty Smith

g-rh@cca.UUCP (Richard Harter) (09/27/86)

David desJardins writes at length (and peevishly too) in response
to my critique of his critique of Bill Gallmeister.  The following
is the original parts of David's article that I quoted.  (BG is
Bill Gallmeister, DJ is David desJardins.)

BG: 2. Man has rules and the universe -- just kind of works.  In reality, there
BG: 	is no E, or M, or C, and certainly no "squaring".  These are
BG: 	labels man uses to define our universe.  They are only true so
BG: 	far as we can see today.
DJ: 
DJ:    There is a name for the opposite belief -- that the behavior of the
DJ: universe can be understood.  It is called 'science.'  Understandably,
DJ: therefore, those of us who consider ourselves 'scientists' don't go
DJ: along with your opinion as expressed above.
BG: 
BG: 3. The universe is uncharacterizable in its entirety by Man, because
BG: 	we are only Man, and when we characterize a thing, we
BG: 	bring our own bias into the matter.
DJ: 
DJ:    There is no evidence to support your statement (that the universe is
DJ: uncharacterizable), and there is substantial evidence to the contrary
DJ: (every successful prediction of science provides such evidence).

	And my comments were (marked as RH:) were --

RH: 
RH: All too often people (and Rich Rosen) quote material from other people
RH: and then comment on the quoted material in a way that does address what
RH: was actually said.  Our example for today is:
RH: 
RH: Number 3 is quite blatant -- Gallmeister says "uncharacterizable in its
RH: entirety by Man" and David renders it as "uncharacterizable".
RH: Gallmeister asserts a certain type of limitation on knowledge and
RH: David translates this into an assertion that no knowledge at all is
RH: possible.
RH: 
RH: David's response in #2 is also unresponsive.  Gallmeister makes
RH: the legitimate observation that our descriptions of the universe
RH: are different in character from the universe itself, and David reads
RH: him as saying that it is impossible to understand the universe.

	Now it may be the case that David is desperately offended
at being compared to Rich Rosen.  Now if that's the problem, I can't
blame him.  There are many that would be.  What can I say?  If that's
your problem, David, I heartily apologize.  But somehow, I don't
think that's the whole story.  Let us see:

DJ: 
DJ:    When we quote material, the *purpose* of this quoting is to put our
DJ: statements into context.  Thus, it seems (or at least seemed) perfectly
DJ: acceptable to repeat the arguments of the original poster in a more
DJ: abbreviated form, since the original quotation is *right there*, if a
DJ: more detailed statement of the original poster's views is desired.  This
DJ: seems *especially* clear in a parenthetical remark, which in ordinary
DJ: usage serves only to specify the antecedent of the preceding noun; in
DJ: this case the noun, "your [Gallmeister's] statement," seems sufficient
DJ: in itself, given that one and only one statement of Gallmeister is quoted
DJ: immediately above!

	Er, yes, I would suppose that is the purpose of quotation.  There
are sundry misuses of quotation such as selective quotation out of context.
Lord knows, there is enough of that floating around.  However I am quite
satisfied that your usage of quotation here is legitimate, correct, and
to be commended. (OK?)


DJ:    It seems *obvious* to me that when I write "uncharacterizable," in
DJ: the context of the above quotation, that I am using the word in the
DJ: same way as in the original quotation.  It seems, therefore, unnecessary
DJ: to *repeat* the exact words of the original posting, in order to desig-
DJ: nate the statement to which I am referring.
DJ:    Nevertheless, I seem to have been mistaken, since Mr. Harter was
DJ: unable to discerm my meaning.  I will, therefore, repeat my statement,
DJ: in a sufficiently verbose form as to make its meaning perfectly evident
DJ: to all readers:
DJ: 
DJ: 	There is no evidence to support Mr. Gallmeister's statement
DJ: 	(that the universe is uncharacterizable in its entirety by
DJ: 	Man), and there is substantial evidence to the contrary
DJ: 	(every successful prediction of science provides such evidence).

	But David, this is a substantial modification.  It changes your
entire statement from being unresponsive to merely being false.  Your
equating of what you said with what you now say that you meant is supported
by the chain of statements below.  What we have here is that an entire line
of reasoning by David was elided.

DJ:    Since this semantic clarification was of such importance to Mr. Harter
DJ: that he thought it appropriate to post on the matter, I felt it was only
DJ: proper for me to do the same.

	I hate to break it to you, but the whole matter is of no great
importance to me, and your efforts at sarcasm are wasted.  The next
paragraph by David is the meat of the matter.  I will go over it sentence
by sentence.

DJ:    It should be obvious (except perhaps to Mr. Harter) that I disagree
DJ: with Gallmeister's "legitimate observation" (is this Mr. Harter's idea
DJ: of an unbiased description of the statement in question?).

	Yes.

DJ: Neither
DJ: Gallmeister nor Mr. Harter has produced evidence that the behavior of
DJ: the universe is substantially different in character from our descrip-
DJ: tions of that behavior.

	Now here David introduces a major shift from "not entirely
characterizable" to "substantially different in character".  Let me go
with the original for the moment.  Is the universe "not entirely
characterizable" by man.  Current theory says that it cannot be.
The problem is that the universe is more detailed and more varied
than any possible description of it.  (There are sundry theorems of
this kind, e.g. there is a theorem that no computer can provide a
complete simulation of the universe in real time.)  It should be
obvious without appealing to metatheory that we are finite beings
and that the universe is much bigger than we are and that our descriptions
of the universe are necessarily going to fall short of completeness,
no matter how much work we put into it.

	Nor will it do to say that we can prescribe universal laws
that completely characterize the universe in principle.  (I.e. laws
such that we could work out what will happen in detail in any particular
instance.)  First of all, we are (within current theory) restrained
by Quantum indeterminancy -- complete prediction is impossible in
principle.  Secondly, we have no assurance that we can ever determine
a complete set of universal laws -- what we have seen is a series of
incomplete approximations.  Thirdly it seems to be the case that
complex aggregates have system properties that are not deducible
from the laws governing the individual elements of the system.

	We should also pay some attention to Gallmeister's
original claim of bias.  I will paraphrase this as saying "there
may be characteristics of the universe that would be signicant
to us if we knew what they were, but which we cannot discover
because of our inherent biases."  This may or may not be true;
however this is in the nature of an unprovable claim.  The fact
that history is replete with examples of things being overlooked
because of bias suggests that it is probably true.  The answer
can only be "So what".

	Let us turn to David's rendition.  My problem with this,
fussy semanticist that I am, is that I rather suspect that David
has something in mind other than what I see his words as saying.
As we all know (or do we?), the map is not the territory.  Symbols
are not the same thing as the things that they are symbols of.
Now I did not read Gallmeister (as quoted) as saying much more
than that; however David seems to have put a stronger and less
obvious interpretation upon it.

	My guess is (and this is rank speculation, subject to
correction) that David was interpreting what was quoted as
asserting that, so to speak, the map is radically and inherently
deficient.  Now there may be some justice in this.  I do have
Gallmeister's original article at hand, but I recall it as being
a little breezy.  If David were objecting to a line of reasoning
that said "we don't know everything; therefore such and such is
possible", then he and I are at one.  In a larger context of the
entire Gallmeister article, his objections may be well taken;
the problem is then simply that he picked the wrong things to
quote and objected to unquoted lines of reasoning.

DJ: It seems that from such a belief it must
DJ: necessarily follow that it is impossible to understand the behavior
DJ: of the universe; if the universe does indeed behave in a manner that
DJ: does not correspond to any description that we can make, how can we
DJ: expect to understand that behavior that cannot be described??

	Ah so, little grasshopper.  And if you can't have everything
that you want then does it follow that no wish of yours will ever be
satisfied?  If there are unanswered questions, does it follow that no
questions have answers.

	As an experiment consider the effect on this sentence of
placing the word "completely" before the word "understand" and the
word "fully" before the word "correspond".

DJ: Further, if the behavior of the universe is in a manner which cannot
DJ: be described, then what reason can we have to believe that the universe
DJ: will in the future behave in one manner rather than in another?

	To quote Haldane, "Not only is the universe queerer than we
imagine, it is queerer than we can imagine".  The sentence above is
such a disaster [Sorry, David] that it is hard to comment on.  The
problem is that at no time has anyone (in the material quoted here)
asserted that the universe cannot be described at all, but merely
that the universe cannot be fully described.  Given incomplete
knowledge we can make incomplete predictions; we expect to be
wrong some of the time.

DJ: Scientific belief is inextricably based on belief in induction, that the
DJ: universe will continue to behave in the manner that it has been observed
DJ: to behave.  This itself is a "rule"; if the universe does not behave
DJ: according to such rules, then science itself is without justification
DJ: or foundation.

As in, "I observe that I always wake up after sleeping, therefore I shall
always wake up after sleeping."?  [Sorry, couldn't resist.]  I can't
argue with this; it obviously needs to be qualified, but it is true
in essence.  However scientific belief recognizes that our knowledge is
only an approximation that improves with time.

DJ: P.S. I have regretfully refrained from defending myself in net.sf-lovers.
DJ: I can only wonder why Mr. Harter thought it appropriate to attack me there.

Pooh!  Since I did not edit the distribution line, I merely posted to
the same places that you posted to.  Is it perhaps your contention that
it is alright for you to "attack" anyone you choose wherever you choose,
but that others do not have the right to comment in reply in the same
places?  [Your comments to Gallmeister were very much in the line of a
personal attack, you know.]

Incidentally, you needn't be so formal.  You don't have to address me
as "Mr. Harter" -- "Sir" will do quite nicely.  "Respected Intellectual
Superior" is also acceptable.

-- 

Richard Harter, SMDS Inc. [Disclaimers not permitted by company policy.]
	For Cheryl :-)