[talk.philosophy.misc] Causality

dhw@itivax.iti.org (David H. West) (12/21/89)

In article <5610@rice-chex.ai.mit.edu> miken@rice-chex.WISC.EDU (Michael N. Nitabach) writes:
>metaphysical tradition, beginning with the British Empiricists, e.g. Locke
>and Hume.  This is the view that causation is not an aspect of the world
>which our mentality can recognize, but rather a schema which our mind imposes
                         ^^^^^^^^^
>on events with appropriate spatiotemporal relations.  A conceptually
>opposite--Realist--stance would be that causation exists as an actual
>attribute of certain pairs of physical events.  

What, in this view, is "recognition"?   Is it fallible?  If so,
how is it different from imposing (perhaps unconsciously) a schema
which may need to be revised to accommodate later sense-data?
If it is not fallible, why are we still doing science? [hint: this
is a rhetorical question :-) ]

-David West       dhw@iti.org