colonel@ellie.UUCP (Col. G. L. Sicherman) (03/10/86)
> The question is: > > IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE LOSER OF THE GAME TO ACTUALLY HAVE > ACQUIRED LOWER SCORE? IN OTHER WORD, IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE LOSER TO HAVE > MADE FEWER DEVIATION FROM A PERFECT PLAY EVEN THOUGH HE LOST THE GAME?? It's not hard to construct an example. More specifically, imagine a game in which White often plays 2nd-best moves and Black often plays 3rd-best moves. After 40 moves White has a winning advantage. He then plays a 2nd-best move in a position where all moves but the best lose instantly. -- Col. G. L. Sicherman UU: ...{rocksvax|decvax}!sunybcs!colonel CS: colonel@buffalo-cs BI: csdsicher@sunyabva