[net.politics.theory] "To each according to his need"

carnes@gargoyle.UChicago.UUCP (Richard Carnes) (03/27/85)

Neal Weidenhofer writes:
>	I can't help but be struck by the essentially "socialistic" or
>"Marxist" definition of "fair" that you are using.  (Cf. "From each
>according to his ability, to each according to his need".)  

A rumor seems to have got about that the maxim quoted above
represents Marx's criterion for a fair or just distribution.  Marx,
the story goes, held that the only just way to distribute goods was
according to the "need" of each individual, and any social
arrangement that failed to do so was deficient in justice.

However, this is not the case.  Marx, as I read him, rejected justice
as a category by which to judge societies or on which to base
political action.  His vision was of a society in which alienation,
as he conceived it, would be overcome, not a society in which justice
would be finally be achieved.  He did not, in any passage of which I
am aware, say that the capitalist system is unjust or advocate its
overthrow on such grounds.  This does not mean he regarded it as just
in a positive sense, any more than an atheist who denies that God is
malevolent must therefore believe that God is benevolent.  

The way to interpret this often-quoted phrase is to place it in its
context in *The Critique of the Gotha Programme* and to place the
*Critique* in the context of Marx's other important writings.  It is
in this work, after all, that Marx says that under socialism as
distinguished from communism income will have to be allocated
according to work performed rather than according to need.  I don't
think that Marx regarded this as advocating an injustice.

Richard Carnes