[net.politics.theory] Communism as historical tragedy

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (11/20/85)

In article <28200260@inmet.UUCP> janw@inmet.UUCP writes:
>Though hypotheses in "alternative history" are unverifiable,
>it is quite likely that, without Communism, the Russian empire
>would have fallen apart. All the others did (count:
>Austro-Hungary, Britain, France, Holland, Belgium, Portugal,
>Spain...). This one survived, and spread, and keeps spreading.

If the "Russian empire" had fallen apart and not industrialized
rapidly, Nazism and not communism would rule Eastern Europe today.
German developments did not depend on the Russian empire.

The power of the USSR is in its huge land size, population, and
natural resources, combined with a level of economic development
which has let its size advantages make a difference.  Britain
and the other empires Jan lists ruled at a time of history when
size was not convertable into political and economic influence.
Their demise was inevitable.  Russia's was not.

Lenin said communism equaled electrification -- and that's what
communism did for the USSR.  It industrialized the USSR to the
point where it could become a world power.  It did so at high
costs to the political system, which has only advanced slowly
since.  And it left gaps in industrial development, especially
in consumer goods.

But that's still a big accomplishment.  It defeated Nazi Germany.

>Communism provided it (1) with an incomparable machinery 
>of power and (2) with a supranational, internationalist
>ideology, acceptable to the ruling class of subject lands.
>It also (3) made economic gain secondary to power gain, so
>the empire needn't be cost effective to exist.
>
>		Jan Wasilewsky

What incomparable machinery of power?  Military force isn't
anything new.  What does communism have to do with it?  And
how is communist internationalist ideology acceptable to the
ruling class of subject lands, any more so than another
colonialist ideology imposed on a subject land?

As far as economic gain goes, only the historically nearsighted
would call Communism a failure.  As an economic system, its flaws
only began to stick out in the late 1960s-1980s.  They may
not persist.  If Chinese development succeeds, it will be another
success for Communism as a means for nations with large domestic
economies to industrialize.

I think Jan is just confusing the impact of WWII and the Cold War
with the impact of Communism.  Does he think the USSR would have
invaded Eastern Europe if not for WWII?  There's no evidence I
know of for that.  Would he prefer that Eastern Europe be under
the Nazis or the Tsars?

Tony Wuersch
{amd,amdcad}!cae780!ubvax!tonyw

tedrick@ernie.BERKELEY.EDU (Tom Tedrick) (11/24/85)

One point I would like to make is that the collapse of the
Russian empire was a consequence of World War 1, as was the
collapse of the German and Austro-Hungarian empires. The
world wars played a major role in weakening the British
empire. Japan and Italy lost their empires as a consequence
of WW2. There is too much emphasis on some kind of historical
necessity leading to the collapse of these empires. They
might very well still exist had their political leaders had
the intelligence not to fight wars they did not have a
high probability of winning.

Anyway communism took hold in Russia only because the empire
had already collapsed and a partial power vacuum existed, and
they were ready and able to pick up the pieces. It
seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
like a major war playing a role.

janw@inmet.UUCP (11/26/85)

>>Communism provided it (1) with an incomparable machinery of power 

> What incomparable machinery of power?  

Echoes of Don Black ... well, perhaps it is a temporary aberration.

Recommended reading:

Solzhenitsin, The Gulag Archipelago;
Voslensky, Nomenklatura;
Avtorkhanov , Technology of Power;
Orwell, 1984

janw@inmet.UUCP (11/26/85)

[Tony Wuersch tonyw@ubvax]
>If the "Russian empire" had fallen apart and not industrialized
>rapidly, Nazism and not communism would rule Eastern Europe today.
>German developments did not depend on the Russian empire.

Two errors here. 
(1) Russia would, by all historical trends, have  industrialized.
Russia *was* industrializing, at a breath-taking pace, before the
communist revolution. There was every reason for this to continue
and  accelerate.   Empire  had nothing to do with it, in fact, as
with other empires, it distorted development. Communism preserved
the empire and squandered the resources of development. What
remained made Russia the third-ranking economic power today.
It was a natural candidate for #1 - even without its colonies.
In fact that was what the original article argued - the one
Gabor and I rebutted. *That* part was never rebutted.

(2) German developments did, as it happens, depend on the Russian
developments.  Without  USSR,  German  Communism  would be just a
shade in Social-Democratic spectrum. And without fear of  Commun-
ism  and polarization of German politics, Hitler would never have
come to power. There were certainly other factors; but Nazis made
it  by  a small margin, at the time when their influence was dec-
lining.  Without *this* factor they certainly wouldn't. Also,  at
a  critical moment German Communists were ordered by Moscow to
support Hitler. So he benefited both  from  Communism  and  anti-
Communism. It was 1917 that made 1933 possible.

>The power of the USSR is in its huge land size, population, and
>natural resources, combined with a level of economic development
>which has let its size advantages make a difference.  Britain
>and the other empires Jan lists ruled at a time of history when
>size was not convertable into political and economic influence.
>Their demise was inevitable.  Russia's was not.

British and the other empires - except Austro-Hungary -
existed at *the same* time in history  as USSR.

>Lenin said communism equaled electrification -- and that's what
>communism did for the USSR.  It industrialized the USSR to the
>point where it could become a world power.  It did so at high
>costs to the political system, which has only advanced slowly
>since.  And it left gaps in industrial development, especially
>in consumer goods.

Answered above;  quite  wrong;  and  even  misinterprets
Lenin's words. He meant that electrification was a *precondition*
of a communist society, not that communist ideology would  create
electricity. He certainly was *for* electrification.  So were the
businessmen who fled the country, the engineers who were tortured
and  imprisoned, the economists who were shot for realistic
estimates, and  the  farmers  who were starved and who otherwise
would have paid for it. Human bones are not  the  most  efficient
foundation  for  modern industry.  The sixty million corpses were
in vain; the development was retarded, not enhanced.

		Jan Wasilewsky

gabor@qantel.UUCP (Gabor Fencsik@ex2642) (11/26/85)

In article <11069@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Tom Tedrick writes:

> It seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
> overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
> like a major war playing a role.

It is embarrassing to have to point out such a well-known historical fact but:
the Bolsheviks DID NOT overturn the Tsar. He was overthrown in an unplanned
and uncontrolled series of bread riots, strikes and mutinies known as the
February Revolution. Lenin found out about the Tsar's fall from the Swiss
newspapers. It is more correct to say that the Bolsheviks hijacked the
revolution that toppled the Tsar, somewhat like the mullahs' trick in Iran.

-----
Gabor Fencsik           {ihnp4,dual,lll-crg,hplabs,intelca}!qantel!gabor

janw@inmet.UUCP (11/26/85)

[tedrick@ucbvax]
>Anyway communism took hold in Russia only because the empire
>had already collapsed and a partial power vacuum existed, and
>they were ready and able to pick up the pieces.

So far, quite true. Even more : for "partial" read almost complete.
Kerensky was considered indispensable by his colleagues, though
he was weak and hysterical, for the reason that he had the rare
ability to talk a stray band of armed people in the street into
enforcing an order.
	
>It seems absurd to me to think that  the  communists  could  have
>overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor like a
>major war playing a role.

*Communists* couldn't, with or without war. As it was, Bolsheviks
took *no* part in toppling the Tzar. Not one of them.
Lenin learned of it in Switzerland from a newspaper and *didn't
believe* at first. No one knows how the Petrograd riots happened
that brought the monarchy down. It was the slightest and most
random push possible - and the thing came down crashing because it
was completely rotten. *No* one came to its support. No class,
party, group or military unit. 
Which shows that, though the war was a proximate cause, the
collapse - of one kind or another - was inevitable.

As for preserving the unity of the parts - possible but
only just possible. Centrifugal forces were great - don't
forget that Poland and Finland were parts of the Empire,
as well as the Ukraine, the Baltic areas and the Caucasus.
All of them were boiling with unrest.
Perhaps, if all was very liberal and democratic, some
kind of confederation, a Russian Commonwealth of Nations,
could have been created. Some trade and customs union would
be to everyone's interest. But that's not an empire.

		Jan Wasilewsky

tedrick@ernie.BERKELEY.EDU (Tom Tedrick) (11/29/85)

In article <554@qantel.UUCP> gabor@qantel.UUCP writes:
>In article <11069@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Tom Tedrick writes:
>
>> It seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
>> overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
>> like a major war playing a role.
>
>It is embarrassing to have to point out such a well-known historical fact but:
>the Bolsheviks DID NOT overturn the Tsar. He was overthrown in an unplanned
>and uncontrolled series of bread riots, strikes and mutinies known as the
>February Revolution. Lenin found out about the Tsar's fall from the Swiss
>newspapers. It is more correct to say that the Bolsheviks hijacked the
>revolution that toppled the Tsar, somewhat like the mullahs' trick in Iran.
>
>-----
>Gabor Fencsik           {ihnp4,dual,lll-crg,hplabs,intelca}!qantel!gabor

What you say is basically true but does not have much to do with my point.
I didn't say that the Bolsheviks overturned the Tsar. I said 
it seems absurd to think that they *COULD HAVE* overturned
the Tsar ... It is really frustrating to post articles on the net
when even intelligent people like you misread what I say.

tedrick@ernie.BERKELEY.EDU (Tom Tedrick) (11/29/85)

In article <28200340@inmet.UUCP> janw@inmet.UUCP writes:
>
>[tedrick@ucbvax]
>	
>>It seems absurd to me to think that  the  communists  could  have
>>overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor like a
>>major war playing a role.
>
>*Communists* couldn't, with or without war. As it was, Bolsheviks
>took *no* part in toppling the Tzar. Not one of them.

I don't understand why Jan, whom I regard as one of the most
intelligent people on the net, seems to misunderstand what I
said. I never said the communists *DID* overthrow the Tsar.
My point was that without a war the odds were heavily in favor
of the existing power group being able to retain power. The
Tsar was able to mobilize enormous armies and it took several
years of enormous slaughter (millions of Russian troops killed)
before morale collapsed. Maybe a revolution would have taken place
anyway, but my bet would be that the Tsarist regime would have been
able to stay in power if no war had taken place. So if you
are going to flame at me, flame at me for claiming that
communism would never have been victorious in Russia without
some kind of war playing a role. I hope I have made my self
clearer this time.

>Which shows that, though the war was a proximate cause, the
>collapse - of one kind or another - was inevitable.

OK, I disagree with that statement. I claim that without
the destabilizing influence of war, revolutions are much
less likely to suceed, especially if the government in
power knows what it is doing.

janw@inmet.UUCP (12/01/85)

>>[tedrick@ucbvax]
>>>It seems absurd to me to think that  the  communists  could  have
>>>overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor like a
>>>major war playing a role.
>>
>>*Communists* couldn't, with or without war. As it was, Bolsheviks
>>took *no* part in toppling the Tzar. Not one of them.
>
>I don't understand why Jan ...  seems to misunderstand what I
>said. I never said the communists *DID* overthrow the Tsar.

You are right, you didn't, and I should have stated  that  before
saying  what I said. It still needed saying, for two reasons: the
historical delusion that  the  Communists  abolished  Tsarism  is
widely  spread;  and comparisons on the net of the two systems as
if natural alternatives help to keep this alive. Of course,  this
is  not  your  fault.  I *half*-misunderstood you: i.e., I wasn't
sure what you meant . So I sat between two chairs  in  my  reply,
which is always a mistake.

		Jan Wasilewsky

laura@l5.uucp (Laura Creighton) (12/02/85)

>
>OK, I disagree with that statement. I claim that without
>the destabilizing influence of war, revolutions are much
>less likely to suceed, especially if the government in
>power knows what it is doing.

This depends on how long you are willing to wait.  If you are not adamant
about having change in your life time, then you don't need a war. If
no civil war had happened in Russia, and the industrial revolution had
just proceeded along its way, the whole structure of Russian society
would have changed.  Once it is possible to make wealth rather than
simply inherit it, you get a new influx of wealthy and powerful people,
with middle-class ideas and middle-class expectations.  The nobility tends
to dry up, and either become middle class, or be supported by the middle
class who for some reason or other wants to have a few royality around.

This sort of thing is happens again and again whenever a middle class
develops.  But as far as I know, except for England, I don't know a
single place where a decrease in relative power of the ruling class was not
also accompanied by a civil war.  But in every case I can think of, the
decrease in power was FOLLOWED by a civil war; the civil war only being
an indication that the days of absolute power by the ruling class were
over.
-- 
Laura Creighton		
sun!l5!laura		(that is ell-five, not fifteen)
l5!laura@lll-crg.arpa

janw@inmet.UUCP (12/02/85)

>>So I sat between two chairs  in  my  reply, which is always a mistake.

Oops, wrong idiom. Two stools is what I meant, but I was sitting between
two languages...

[Tom Tedrick]
>The Tsar was able to mobilize enormous armies and it took several
>years  of  enormous slaughter (millions of Russian troops killed)
>before morale collapsed. Maybe  a  revolution  would  have  taken
>place  anyway,  but my bet would be that the Tsarist regime would
>have been able to stay in power if no war had taken place.

True about the armies and the slaughter.
But the regime was almost  completely  alienated  from  the  educated
classes.  After the 1905-07 revolution they were demoralized, but
recuperated by 1912, and the cauldron  was  slowly  but  steadily
heating.  The  regime  proved incapable to do anything to prevent
the end, except create a kind of  proto-fascist  (Black  Hundred)
movement. But it couldn't rely on them, either. It was an incred-
ible kleptocracy; the palace clique was out-of touch  with  *all*
classes; it would make Marie Antoinette's little circle look like
sage and benevolent statesmen.

The war caused a surge of patriotism; society decided to postpone
its  quarrel  with  the regime and cooperate. But gradually, what
with the incompetence of the leadership  and  military  setbacks,
and  one  rifle per several soldiers, and spy rumors, and the Em-
press being German, and Rasputin, and cabinet positions  sold  to
dozens of adventurers, sometimes for a month or so, and advice of
the most moderate or even rightwing  parliamentarians  arrogantly
spurned  -  it  took a lot of these and other things, but finally
*no one* wanted the regime to survive. It was far worse than with
the late Shah.

>So if you are going to flame at me, flame at me for claiming that
>communism would never have been victorious in Russia without some
>kind of war playing a role. I hope I have made  my  self  clearer
>this time.

You have, and I *agree* ! Sorry about misunderstanding  you.  Lenin
got  his one and only chance between March and November 1917, and
*only* because of the war.  It took that *and* Lenin's  political
genius  to  use  this chance.  I believe no once else then on the
scene could have done that.  So my bet is that - without the  war
-  the Empire would have fallen, but the Bolsheviks wouldn't have
come to power. They were a tiny group by March 1917.
My bet in the center would be on the Socialist-Revolutionaries,
on the periphery - various nationalist groups mostly with some
Socialist flavor: the way it happened in Poland.
I don't think pure liberal democracy would be very likely (except
in Finland and the Baltic states). But it did have a chance,
because of the brief (since 1905) parliamentarian and a longer 
(since the eighteen-sixties) local self-government experience.

		Jan Wasilewsky

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (12/02/85)

In article <554@qantel.UUCP> gabor@qantel.UUCP writes:
>In article <11069@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Tom Tedrick writes:
>
>> It seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
>> overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
>> like a major war playing a role.
>
>It is embarrassing to have to point out such a well-known historical fact but:
>the Bolsheviks DID NOT overturn the Tsar. He was overthrown in an unplanned
>and uncontrolled series of bread riots, strikes and mutinies known as the
>February Revolution. Lenin found out about the Tsar's fall from the Swiss
>newspapers. It is more correct to say that the Bolsheviks hijacked the
>revolution that toppled the Tsar, somewhat like the mullahs' trick in Iran.
>
>-----
>Gabor Fencsik           {ihnp4,dual,lll-crg,hplabs,intelca}!qantel!gabor

I think Gabor was misreading Tom's intent in that last sentence of
his article.

Tom's article, in the sentence before the one Gabor quotes, said the
empire collapsed before the Bolsheviks "picked up the pieces".  That
was right.  Tom was probably using this last sentence of his article
as a "summary" which unfortunately misstated what he said the sentence
previous.

As far as "hijacked the revolution", what is Gabor talking about?

If one looks at the history and decides that the revolution was made
for and by the St. Petersberg working class, than the October Revolution
seems just a continuation, since the Bolsheviks were overwhelmingly
the favorites of the working class by October.

The Bolsheviks developed slogans for the peasantry which got their support
against the Whites in the Civil War.  So the Bolsheviks got the
support of the working class and the peasantry.  Where's the hijack?

See Trotsky's History for more, or Sheila Fitzpatrick's book on the Russian
Revolution, for a more recent historical sumup.

And the mullahs were acknowledged as leaders of the revolution by the
groups that toppled the Shah.  What does "hijacked the revolution"
mean in Iran?

Maybe Gabor means that Kerensky and BaniSadr deserved to inherit
revolutions they had no part in making, just because they were
parliamentary democrats.  Is that it?

Tony Wuersch
{amd,amdcad}!cae780!ubvax!tonyw

"I should look at a mountain
 and see it as it is
 instead of as a comment
 on my life" -- David Ignatow

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (12/02/85)

In article <554@qantel.UUCP> gabor@qantel.UUCP writes:
>In article <11069@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Tom Tedrick writes:
>
>> It seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
>> overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
>> like a major war playing a role.
>
>It is embarrassing to have to point out such a well-known historical fact but:
>the Bolsheviks DID NOT overturn the Tsar. He was overthrown in an unplanned
>and uncontrolled series of bread riots, strikes and mutinies known as the
>February Revolution. Lenin found out about the Tsar's fall from the Swiss
>newspapers. It is more correct to say that the Bolsheviks hijacked the
>revolution that toppled the Tsar, somewhat like the mullahs' trick in Iran.
>
>-----
>Gabor Fencsik           {ihnp4,dual,lll-crg,hplabs,intelca}!qantel!gabor

I think Gabor was misreading Tom's intent in that last sentence of
his article.

Tom's article, in the sentence before the one Gabor quotes, said the
empire collapsed before the Bolsheviks "picked up the pieces".  That
was right.  Tom was probably using this last sentence of his article
as a "summary" which unfortunately misstated what he said the sentence
previous.

As far as "hijacked the revolution", what is Gabor talking about?

If one looks at the history and decides that the revolution was made
for and by the St. Petersberg working class, than the October Revolution
seems just a continuation, since the Bolsheviks were overwhelmingly
the favorites of the working class by October.

The Bolsheviks developed slogans for the peasantry which got their support
against the Whites in the Civil War.  So the Bolsheviks got the
support of the working class and the peasantry.  Where's the hijack?

See Trotsky's History for more, or Sheila Fitzpatrick's book on the Russian
Revolution, for a more recent historical sumup.

And the mullahs were acknowledged as leaders of the revolution by the
groups that toppled the Shah.  What does "hijacked the revolution"
mean in Iran?

Maybe Gabor means that Kerensky and BaniSadr deserved to inherit
revolutions they had no part in making, just because they were
parliamentary democrats.  Is that it?

Tony Wuersch
{amd,amdcad}!cae780!ubvax!tonyw

"I should see a mountain
 as it is
 not as a comment
 on my life" -- David Ignatow

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (12/03/85)

>In article <11069@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> Tom Tedrick writes:
>
>> It seems absurd to me to think that the communists could have
>> overturned the Tsarist regime without some external factor
>> like a major war playing a role.
>
>It is embarrassing to have to point out such a well-known historical fact but:
>the Bolsheviks DID NOT overturn the Tsar. He was overthrown in an unplanned
>and uncontrolled series of bread riots, strikes and mutinies known as the
>February Revolution. Lenin found out about the Tsar's fall from the Swiss
>newspapers. It is more correct to say that the Bolsheviks hijacked the
>revolution that toppled the Tsar, somewhat like the mullahs' trick in Iran.
>
>-----
>Gabor Fencsik           {ihnp4,dual,lll-crg,hplabs,intelca}!qantel!gabor

I think Gabor was misreading Tom's intent in that last sentence of
his article.

Tom's article, in the sentence before the one Gabor quotes, said the
empire collapsed before the Bolsheviks "picked up the pieces".  That
was right.  Tom was probably using this last sentence of his article
as a "summary" which unfortunately misstated what he said the sentence
previous.

As far as "hijacked the revolution", what is Gabor talking about?

If one looks at the history and decides that the revolution was made
for and by the St. Petersberg working class, than the October Revolution
seems just a continuation, since the Bolsheviks were overwhelmingly
the favorites of the working class by October.

The Bolsheviks developed slogans for the peasantry which got their support
against the Whites in the Civil War.  So the Bolsheviks got the
support of the working class and the peasantry.  Where's the hijack?

See Trotsky's History for more, or Sheila Fitzpatrick's book on the Russian
Revolution, for a more recent historical sumup.

And the mullahs were acknowledged as leaders of the revolution by the
groups that toppled the Shah.  What does "hijacked the revolution"
mean in Iran?

Maybe Gabor means that Kerensky and BaniSadr deserved to inherit
revolutions they had no part in making, just because they were
parliamentary democrats.  Is that it?

Tony Wuersch
{amd,amdcad}!cae780!ubvax!tonyw

"I should see a mountain
 as it is
 not as a comment
 on my life" -- David Ignatow

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (12/03/85)

In article <28200338@inmet.UUCP> janw@inmet.UUCP writes:
>
>[Tony Wuersch tonyw@ubvax]
>>If the "Russian empire" had fallen apart and not industrialized
>>rapidly, Nazism and not communism would rule Eastern Europe today.
>>German developments did not depend on the Russian empire.
>
>Two errors here. 
>(1) Russia would, by all historical trends, have  industrialized.
>Russia *was* industrializing, at a breath-taking pace, before the
>communist revolution. There was every reason for this to continue
>and  accelerate.   Empire  had nothing to do with it, in fact, as
>with other empires, it distorted development. Communism preserved
>the empire and squandered the resources of development. What
>remained made Russia the third-ranking economic power today.

When did empires distort development?  Not in the capitalist era,
for Britain, the US, France, or Germany.  Why so for the USSR?
Even given the speed of development pre-Revolution, it still
doesn't come close to what happened in the Thirties, or to the
postwar recovery.

And Tsarist development was heavily dependent on foreign investment,
which wouldn't have lasted forever.  No guarantee it would have
incorporated peasant labor as a factor in development, as the
Communists did (too much so, we know today).

>It was a natural candidate for #1 - even without its colonies.
>In fact that was what the original article argued - the one
>Gabor and I rebutted. *That* part was never rebutted.

See the above.

>(2) German developments did, as it happens, depend on the Russian
>developments.  Without  USSR,  German  Communism  would be just a
>shade in Social-Democratic spectrum. And without fear of  Commun-
>ism  and polarization of German politics

The fear was never the Communists, but rather the Socialists, the
SPD.  Communists were never more than scapegoats.  Do you want to
blame the USSR for creating scapegoats?

>but Nazis made
>it  by  a small margin, at the time when their influence was dec-
>lining.  Without *this* factor they certainly wouldn't. Also,  at
>a  critical moment German Communists were ordered by Moscow to
>support Hitler. So he benefited both  from  Communism  and  anti-
>Communism. It was 1917 that made 1933 possible.

The myth of Communist strength is just that, a myth.  It was liquidated
when Luxembourg and Liebknecht were liquidated.

>>Lenin said communism equaled electrification -- and that's what
>>communism did for the USSR.  It industrialized the USSR to the
>>point where it could become a world power.  It did so at high
>>costs to the political system, which has only advanced slowly
>>since.  And it left gaps in industrial development, especially
>>in consumer goods.
>
>Answered above;  quite  wrong;  and  even  misinterprets
>Lenin's words. He meant that electrification was a *precondition*
>of a communist society, not that communist ideology would  create
>electricity. He certainly was *for* electrification.  So were the
>businessmen who fled the country, the engineers who were tortured
>and  imprisoned, the economists who were shot for realistic
>estimates, and  the  farmers  who were starved and who otherwise
>would have paid for it.
>
>		Jan Wasilewsky

But were the Tsars for electrification?  I doubt it.  It would have
weakened their political control too much.  If the Tsars weren't
for it, nothing would move anyhow.

Tony Wuersch

mmt@dciem.UUCP (Martin Taylor) (12/05/85)

>would have changed.  Once it is possible to make wealth rather than
>simply inherit it, you get a new influx of wealthy and powerful people,
>with middle-class ideas and middle-class expectations.  The nobility tends
>to dry up, and either become middle class, or be supported by the middle
>class who for some reason or other wants to have a few royality around.
>
>This sort of thing is happens again and again whenever a middle class
>develops.  But as far as I know, except for England, I don't know a
>single place where a decrease in relative power of the ruling class was not
>also accompanied by a civil war.  But in every case I can think of, the
>decrease in power was FOLLOWED by a civil war; the civil war only being
>an indication that the days of absolute power by the ruling class were
>over.
>-- 
>Laura Creighton         

I don't know whether you are right or not, but your point can be strengthened
if you note that England DID have its Civil War, but before the Industrial
Revolution.  The memory of that war, and particularly of the horrors of
the republican regime that followed it, is STILL enculcated in schoolchildren.
I imagine that the memory must have been much stronger in the 1840s,
only 200 years after the Civil War, than it was in the 1940's when I
went to school.  Also, remember that Britain had two more civil wars
and a kind of minor one in the century after the big one.
If you go back through the history of England, much of the time before 1600
was taken up with some kind of dynastic civil war.  The so-called
"Civil War" that ended in 1642(?) was the counterpart of the French
Revolution, and it successfully deposed the monarchy and the aristocracy.
Only the result was very bad (rather like the result in Black Africa
in the 20-40 years after the removal of the Colonial administrators),
so that the people more or less revolted again to bring back King
Charles II (of happy memory).  The next three civil wars were again
dynastic, but I'm sure that people must have been pretty fed up with
war, and very wary of removing the aristocracy again, by the time
the true industrial middle class arose.

(If you compare Great Britain in the 1650's with, say, Zimbabwe now,
you will find many parallels -- one-party democracy, local informers
against those who disagreed with party policy (or theology), hero-cult
of the leader, etc. etc.  The fact that Britain became one of the
sources for democratic government, including that of the USA, suggests
that Black Africa can have a bright future if allowed to do so.)
-- 

Martin Taylor
{allegra,linus,ihnp4,floyd,ubc-vision}!utzoo!dciem!mmt
{uw-beaver,qucis,watmath}!utcsri!dciem!mmt

tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) (12/12/85)

Jan's last article was a very knowing and good description of
the Tsarist disaster.  Since I'm writing this response informally,
please understand if a little black humor comes out.  Russian
history tends to bring out the black humorist in me.

In article <28200354@inmet.UUCP> janw@inmet.UUCP writes:
>So my bet is that - without the  war
>-  the Empire would have fallen, but the Bolsheviks wouldn't have
>come to power. They were a tiny group by March 1917.
>My bet in the center would be on the Socialist-Revolutionaries,
>on the periphery - various nationalist groups mostly with some
>Socialist flavor: the way it happened in Poland.

Bad bet, I think.  I usually think that the problem of Russia
was first, Tsarism, but second, the lack of an indigenous
bourgeoisie, pointed up by the substitution of foreign for
domestic investment in industrial development.

But I think Tsarism could have held on by its fingernails for
a long time without the war.  After all, Rasputin might be
a little wacko, but the Okhrana was solid.

Eventually, the more industrial development without a corresponding
bourgeoisie, the more leverage workers would have in a revolutionary
situation.  Hence in the long run a workers party like the Bolsheviks
or Mensheviks would have succeeded, and it would have had similar
problems to the Bolsheviks as it tried to extend its control beyond
the cities.

So my point is a paradox:  the only chance the Social Revolutionaries
had was in 1917, because of the war!  The war made revolution come
too early for its success to be more than an iffy prospect for
the working class parties.  For them, the later, the better.

The peasants could never be the force of the revolution, so their
party, the Social-Revolutionaries (which never even existed anyhow
before the February revolution, unlike both the Mensheviks and
Bolsheviks), could never have ended up taming it.

Where I do think the Mensheviks and Bolsheviks differed was in the
greater centralist orientation of the Bolsheviks, which was reinforced
by the success of the genius Lenin into a centralist myth.  But then
you can't separate the Bolsheviks from Lenin anyways; it's not as
if were he never born the Bolsheviks would ever have been more than
another exile group.  Lenin started and built *Iskra* (now Pravda).

What the Mensheviks would have done is hard to say.  I doubt they
could have held the country.  There would still have been a civil
war, whenever the inevitable revolution came.  Maybe the Whites
would have won.

But Social-Revolutionaries?????????   I can't believe it.  Maybe
my historical imagination needs a little more oil.  Can you provide
a plausible scenario for the rise of Social Revolutionaries in
the face of worker resistance, Jan?  By October, the workers
were perfectly happy that a putsch had taken place.  So maybe
the Bolsheviks wouldn't have done it.  Somebody would have.

Maybe they'd have to let the parliament run a few more months
to develop more incentive.  As long as soviets were alive, parliament
couldn't succeed.  And in a revolutionary situation, Social
Revolutionaries would have no Okhrana to call on any more.

>I don't think pure liberal democracy would be very likely (except
>in Finland and the Baltic states). But it did have a chance,
>because of the brief (since 1905) parliamentarian and a longer
>(since the eighteen-sixties) local self-government experience.
>
>               Jan Wasilewsky

Aha!  There we disagree.  The success of soviets in 1905 spelled
the death of liberal democracy in 1917, to me.  Democracy could
only have started if the Tsar had murdered the soviets, like the
French did to Paris after the Commune.  Even then it would have
been iffy still.

Try the Kadets next time.

Tony Wuersch
{amd,amdcad}!cae780!ubvax!tonyw

franka@mmintl.UUCP (Frank Adams) (12/16/85)

In article <384@ubvax.UUCP> tonyw@ubvax.UUCP (Tony Wuersch) writes:
[Discussing the Russian revolution in the context of Russian industrial
development:]
>Eventually, the more industrial development without a corresponding
>bourgeoisie, the more leverage workers would have in a revolutionary
>situation.  Hence in the long run a workers party like the Bolsheviks
>or Mensheviks would have succeeded, and it would have had similar
>problems to the Bolsheviks as it tried to extend its control beyond
>the cities.

I don't think this is a possible development.  Industrial development,
after the early stages, always generates a middle class.  The first steps
are different -- you have owners and workers.  But more sophisticated
operations require managers, and technical sophistication requires
technicians.  These two groups have to be middle class -- they have too
much responsibility to be left out, yet must be too numerous to be upper
class.  So there is every reason to believe that the Russia would have
produced a middle class under the Tsars, as it did under the Communists.

Frank Adams                           ihpn4!philabs!pwa-b!mmintl!franka
Multimate International    52 Oakland Ave North    E. Hartford, CT 06108