[net.politics.theory] How Opposite are Reason and Force?

kort@hounx.UUCP (B.KORT) (02/04/86)

Nothwithstanding the rationalist view that the use of force is (generally)
an irrational behavior, we are nevertheless left with the reality that some
alloplastic agents in our society do habitually embrace force as a means
of attaining their goals.  The dilemma of the rationalist is how to 
protect his interests without returning violence for violence.  This
dilemma vexed even Einstein, an avowed pacifist who later urged (and
then regretted) the use of atomic weapons.  It is easier to learn war
than to learn peace.  Until we learn how to teach peace, we will have
more knowledge of combative behavior than of cooperative behavior.

--Barry Kort

janw@inmet.UUCP (02/07/86)

[--Paul V. Torek      torek@umich]
>>[Bob Stubblefield]
>>To say that in normal circumstances the initiation  of  force  to
>>gain  values  is irrational, is not to say force is irrational in
>>all contexts. [examples].  Stealing  a  loaf  of  bread  in  Marie
>>Antoinette's day may have been rational. It is certainly possible
>>for man to devise political systems that  make  it  difficult  to
>>distinguish the rational from the irrational.

>I have an important question here:  is stealing a loaf of bread in Marie
>Antoinette's day an example of *initiating* force?  If so, you have
>already conceded that it is sometimes rational to initiate force.  And
>in that case, why isn't it rational to support certain laws (say, laws
>that authorize taxation to pay for national defense, for example)?

Bob makes an important distinction between *normal*  and  *abnor-
mal*  circumstances. What you are saying is that the circumstance
of a state having external enemies is abnormal enough to  *insti-
tutionalize* the initiation of force against *own* citizens. This
means *giving up* normality (in Bob's sense) for good. The  price
is  clearly too high to be rationally paid because you are giving
up what you are  trying  to  save.  

However, if the taxes are emergency levies and are not likely  to
become  permanent,  then I can see how someone rationally opposed
to initiation of force in general would make an exception in  ex-
traodinary  circumstances.  There  is a moral difference between,
say, an  anti-Nazi  resistance  fighter  sequestering  a  private
weapon  *against all law*, and Congress voting that, from now on,
any part of a person's income they want to take, is  theirs.  The
difference  here  is  entirely  in  favor of the law-breaker, and
against the lawmaker.

It is like  all  other  intolerable  moral  choices.  A  starving
peasant family might intentionally let one of the children die to
save the others and keep the seed grain. Would you  proceed  from
this  observation  to,  say,  a constitutional amendment institu-
tionalizing children-killing to save on food resources ? The con-
clusion  from  an abnormal situation should rather be, to concen-
trate on discovering ways to prevent its recurrence.

			Jan Wasilewsky

janw@inmet.UUCP (02/10/86)

[kort@hounx --Barry Kort]
>Nothwithstanding the rationalist view that the use of force is (generally)
>an irrational behavior, we are nevertheless left with the reality that some
>alloplastic agents in our society do habitually embrace force as a means
>of attaining their goals.  

IRS and INS are prominent among these agents.

>The dilemma of the rationalist is how to 
>protect his interests without returning violence for violence.

In the cases above, one might vote or lobby ...

>This dilemma vexed even Einstein, an avowed  pacifist  who  later
>urged  (and  then  regretted)  the  use  of atomic weapons.

*Later* that, and before, simultaneously with pacifism,  the  So-
viet revolution; and later, simultaneously with pacifism, Zionism
and defense of Israel. He  was  awfully  nice  but  inconsistent,
through and through. His political views carry as little authori-
ty as Newton's biblical exegesis.

But you've switched to alloplastic agents *outside* our
society (external enemies). That problem is hard, indeed.

>It is easier to learn war than to learn peace. 

Read: to "learn" *them* peace. Democratic societies *are*  peace-
ful,  it is  a  proven  fact. While the planet is always covered
with a rash of wars, there has never been  a  war  between  two
democratic countries. They don't even arm against each other.

The problem of war is solved, in principle: make all nations
as free as (e.g.) Costa Rica. In practice, there are obstacles.

				Jan Wasilewsky

janw@inmet.UUCP (02/10/86)

[hound!rwsh (R.STUBBLEFIELD)]
>    When I say force is the opposite of reason, I am *not* saying the 
>victim or the initiator of force necessarily becomes incapable of reason.  
>(Although it is clear that force could destroy the victim's brain and his 
>faculty of reason.)  To be precise, initiation of force to gain values is 
>*opposed* to the faculty of reason.  I will argue, after some intermediate 
>steps, that initiating force to gain values is detrimental to the faculty 
>of reason--both to that of the victim *and* the initiator.

We have here 3 successively weakened reformulations.  I
agree with the last one, in a still weaker form:

(1) Force is *the* opposite of reason. --"The" implies the one
and only. Surely, force is not the antonym of reason; and lots
of things (such as self-delusion) could be said to be opposed
to reason as much as force or more.

(2) Initiating force to gain values is *opposed* to the faculty
of reason. --Well, it is opposed to whatever faculty would be in
command if force were not initiated - sometimes, reason.

(3) Initiating force to gain values is *detrimental* to the faculty 
of reason--both to that of the victim and the initiator.

Add : "tends to be", and "in the long run", and I agree. This  is
*still* strong enough to object to *institutionalized* initiation
of force in society - *even* if that were the only way to prevent
*sporadic* use of force by society's members. However, the alter-
native of a total breakdown of civilization, or of imminent  con-
quest, would be bad enough to justify that.

If non-initiation of force is the rule, it would seem  to  follow
that  enforcement of *contracts* by physical force - especially
by the government - is *not* justified.  Breaking a  contract  is
not  initiating  force. People often say "force or fraud" - as if
they were one. But they aren't.  Also, breach of a contract  does
not always imply fraud.

Can contracts be maintained, except by the threat of force ?
Certainly. There are many examples.

		Jan Wasilewsky

torek@umich.UUCP (Paul V. Torek ) (02/13/86)

In article <28200631@inmet.UUCP> janw@inmet.UUCP writes:
>>>To say that in normal circumstances the initiation  of  force  to
>>>gain  values  is irrational, is not to say force is irrational in
>>>all contexts. [examples].  Stealing  a  loaf  of  bread  in  Marie
>>>Antoinette's day may have been rational. It is certainly possible
>>>for man to devise political systems that  make  it  difficult  to
>>>distinguish the rational from the irrational.[Bob Stubblefield]
>
>>I have an important question here:  is stealing a loaf of bread in Marie
>>Antoinette's day an example of *initiating* force?  If so, you have
>>already conceded that it is sometimes rational to initiate force.  And
>>in that case, why isn't it rational to support certain laws (say, laws
>>that authorize taxation to pay for national defense, for example)?
>
>Bob makes an important distinction between *normal*  and  *abnor-
>mal*  circumstances. What you are saying is that the circumstance
>of a state having external enemies is abnormal enough to  *insti-
>tutionalize* the initiation of force against *own* citizens.

No, that's not my point.  What I'm wondering is what separates "normal"
from "abnormal" circumstances, and whether "abnormal" ones are really
abnormal at all.  Maybe they aren't -- maybe the very circumstances
we live in and can expect to live in for quite a while (those of having
external enemies) justify the use of force in taxation?  To put it 
differently, what is the difference between stealing the loaf of bread
in Antoinette's day on the one hand, and taxation for defense today on 
the other, that makes the first OK but the second wrong?

--Paul Torek						torek@umich

carnes@gargoyle.UUCP (Richard Carnes) (02/13/86)

There has been some discussion recently concerning "initiation of
force" (alternatively "initiation of coercion").  Would someone
please post a definition of this term so that I can follow the
discussion.  What conditions are necessary and sufficient for an
event to be considered an initiation of force?  
-- 
Richard Carnes, ihnp4!gargoyle!carnes