[net.religion.christian] The Abiathar Question - reply to Gary B.

rjb@akgua.UUCP (R.J. Brown [Bob]) (07/17/85)

The following argument is distilled from Dr Gleason
Archer's book BIBLE DIFFICULTIES pp 362-363.

Dr Gleason argues that Jesus did not actually imply
that Abiathar was already high priest at the time
of David's visit to eat the concecrated bread.
In the Greek of Mark 2:26, Jesus is attributed with:

		             _
	EPI ABIATHAR ARCHIEREOS

which means "in the time of Abiathar the high priest".

Dr Gleason does a little arm waving about how maybe Abiathar
was more important to the overall story since he was
David's man during the many years of wandering.

However his main arguments rest on the Greek usage:

	1) The wording can be understood in the vein of
	  "When President Reagan lived in Illinois....
	  Well the President had a paper route..."

	  He obviously was not President when he had the
	  paper route.  Dr Gleason argues that this is that
	  kind of usage.

	2) Dr Gleason cites W.F. Arndt (not KEN :-) ) and
	and F.W. Gingrich (Greek - English Lexicon of the 
	N.T. - U of Chic., 1957, pp286) which states that
	"epi" with the genitive simply means "in the time of"
	and that is the meaning applicable in Mark 2:26
	as well as Acts 11:28 (IN the time of Claudius..),
	and Hebrews 1:2 (In the time of the last of these
	days).

The episode did indeed happen "in the time of" Abiathar.  He was
both alive and present and shortly after became high priest when
his daddy was murdered by King Saul.

OK Gary, I don't read Greek - can you comment ??

Any of our Greek Scholars out there - please call home.

Bob Brown {...ihnp4!akgua!rjb}