[net.religion.christian] Jesus' Davidic descent/"King of the Jews"

jeand@ihlpg.UUCP (AMBAR) (08/02/85)

 
> If establishing Jesus'  claim to the  throne of David  was  important,
> and  if  this claim  was   so important, why    did Pilate,  have  rex
> iudaeorum (Herod the Great's title in Latin) rather than rex  israelis
> (David's title in Latin) inscribed on the cross of execution (I may
> have misunderstood the account and the actual inscription may have
> been in Greek but the actual language is not important)?

Well, for starters, the sign was in THREE languages:  Greek, Latin, and
Aramaic.  Remember that Pilate was a Roman.  He probably knew very little
of Hebrew culture, and cared less.  The Davidic kingdom, as far as he was
concerned, had been destroyed long ago, and the ONLY legitimate king of
the Jews was Herod (which claim the Jews fiercely disputed.....)

					AMBAR
"But there's no room on my desk for ME!"