rogerw (01/16/83)
I've been looking some more into the calendars (Gregorian and Julian) and have come up with the following questions: 1) When the Gregorian calendar was introduced in 1582, it differed from the Julian by ten days. When adopted by the British in 1752, it differd by eleven days, since 1700 was a Julian leap year, but not Gregorian [1600 was a leap year for both.] Counting backwards from the 16th century, allowing that the years 400, 800 and 1200 are leap years for both calendars, I find that the Gregorian and Julian calendars agree in the 2nd century. Why is this? The Julian was introduced in the first century BCE. I would assume that it was in agreement with the solstice at the time it was introduced; this should mean that the Julian and Gregorian would be the same for the century in which the Julian was introduced, not two centuries later. 2) When historians convert dates to our calendar, I assume they convert* to the Julian for the years between 46 BCE and 1752, but for earlier years, which calendar are they using? ---Roger Wells [tektronix!tekid!rogerw]