[net.sci] Why are there so fe

janw@inmet.UUCP (07/21/86)

[linda@rtech.UUCP ]

>*Government* certainly has some right to dictate what actions are
>permitted.   This  is  amply  demonstrated  in areas of civil and
>criminal law, including both laws concerning the behavior of  in-
>dividuals  and of corporations; and in regulation of industry and
>commerce. Or shall we dismantle all of these, too?  Is  it  unac-
>ceptable  to  include social goals as an area in which government
>is permitted to act? Then of course we must  dismantle  ALL  wel-
>fare, public health insurance, etc.

Your argument is essentially this: we've extended the government
power a lot; why not extend it indefinitely? Do you draw the
line *anywhere* ? 1st amendment, maybe? Has the government the
right to tell you what opinions to express? Why not, if "societal
goals" are advanced? Speech is an action, too...

If and when you recognize *some* boundary limiting government's
power over individuals - independent of "societal goals" or
"public policy" - you'll have common ground with your opponent;
the position of this boundary can then be discussed.

As it is, you seem to defend totalitarian government; and the
best refutation is the history of such governments worldwide.

		Jan Wasilewsky