[net.religion.jewish] Judaism and Polygamy: Part II

rjb@akgua.UUCP (R.J. Brown [Bob]) (10/24/84)

Re: Polygamy and Judaism : Part II

I put forth the question about the role of polygamy in
Judaism since one might infer monogamy from Genesis depending
on the translation. Later in the Scriptures we have examples
of polygamy (particularly in King Solomon).  Mr Martillo explained
that it was indeed a question of understanding the Hebrew correctly
to mean a very simple sexual union (i.e. becoming one with your
wife or wives).  I really have not heard an Ashkenazic (sp ?) reply
since I understand that their tradition is more monogamous.

*** Would someone please suggest an "acceptable" English translation
of the Hebrew Scriptures so that when I make references I can use
the proper chapter and verse citations familiar to Jewish readers.***

In the book of Malachi starting in the Second Chapter verse 13 
(Christian designation of chap and vs.) we read in Today's English
Version:

"This is another thing you do.  You drown the Lord's altar with tears
, weeping and wailing because he no longer accepts the offerings you
bring Him. (14) You ask why He no longer accepts them.  It is because He
knows you have broken the promise to the wife you married when you were
young.  She was your partner, and you have broken your promise to her,
although you promised before God that you would be faithful to her. (15)
Didn't God make you one body and spirit with her ?  What was the purpose
of this ?  It was that you should have children who are truly God's 
people.  So make sure that none of you breaks his promise to his wife.
(16) `I hate divorce,' says the Lord God of Israel.  `I hate it when one
of you does such a cruel  thing to his wife.  Make sure that you do not 
break your promise to be faithful to your wife.'"

The margin references say that the first question in verse 15 is unclear
in the Hebrew.

Now, the questions:

1) Does the gist of this quotation read the same to Hebrew Scripture
readers ?

2) If approximately yes, does this text lend any weight to monogamy as
the norm ?  Does the fact that Malachi was written in the 5th century
BCE and echoes what I thought were monogamous leanings in Genesis have
any bearing ?  In other words am I reading into the text a consistency
that isn't there ( perhaps influenced by my Christian background) ?

Messrs BenDavid, Martillo, and all others who read the Hebrew Scriptures 
- please comment.



Bob Brown {...ihnp4!akgua!rjb}

smb@ulysses.UUCP (Steven Bellovin) (10/26/84)

> From: rjb@akgua.UUCP (R.J. Brown [Bob])
> Message-ID: <1053@akgua.UUCP>
> Date: Wed, 24-Oct-84 12:33:05 EDT
> 
> *** Would someone please suggest an "acceptable" English translation
> of the Hebrew Scriptures so that when I make references I can use
> the proper chapter and verse citations familiar to Jewish readers.***

I generally use the new translation done under the auspices of the Jewish
Publication Society.  It's the official translation of Conservative Judaism,
and is, as best I've been able to learn, fairly accurate.  However, it lacks
commentary on matters other than translation ambiguities.  I'm not qualified
to translate the passage you cite (though I personally understood it to be
metaphoric, in the sense of Israel deserting the Torah); however, it is
instructive to compare the two translations.  The version Bob Brown posted,
from "Today's English Version", is indented; the JPS version is flush with
the left margin.  Square brackets are in their text; I've used {text|alt}
to indicate their footnotes on passages, and <...> to indicate passages for
which they feel the meaning of the Hebrew is uncertain.

			(13) "This is another thing you do.  You drown
			the Lord's altar with tears , weeping and
			wailing because he no longer accepts the
			offerings you bring Him.

And this you do {as well | literally, a second
time; Septuagint: "which I detest"}: you cover the
altar of the L-rd with tears, weeping, and
moaning, so that He refuses to regard the oblation
any more and to accept {what you offer |
literally, from your hand}.

			(14) You ask why He no longer accepts them.  It
			is because He knows you have broken the promise
			to the wife you married when you were young.
			She was your partner, and you have broken your
			promise to her, although you promised before
			God that you would be faithful to her.

But you ask, "Because of what?"  Because the L-rd
is a witness between you and the wife of your
youth with whom you have broken faith, though she
is your partner and covenanted spouse.

			(15) Didn't God make you one body and spirit
			with her ?  What was the purpose of this ?  It
			was that you should have children who are truly
			God's people.  So make sure that none of you
			breaks his promise to his wife.

Did not the One make [all,] <so that all remaining
life-breath is His?  And what does that One seek
but godly folk?  So be careful of your life-breath>,
and let no one break faith with the wife of his
youth.

			(16) `I hate divorce,' says the Lord God of
			Israel.  `I hate it when one of you does such a
			cruel  thing to his wife.  Make sure that you
			do not break your promise to be faithful to
			your wife.'"

For I detest divorce -- said the L-rd, the G-d of
Israel -- <and covering oneself with lawlessness
as with a garment> -- said the L-rd of Hosts.  So
be careful of your life-breath and do not act
treacherously.

			The margin references say that the first
			question in verse 15 is unclear in the Hebrew.

------------------------------

Note how different the translations can be, even when neither admits
difficulty or confusion.  The causality switch in verse 13 is especially
instructive.


		--Steve Bellovin