rjb@akgua.UUCP (R.J. Brown [Bob]) (03/06/85)
It never ceases to amaze me how I can be unintentionally
offensive. I'm very sorry to be so, but I was quite serious in
referencing Jews and Jewish behavior because I assumed that my audience
on n.r.j. is predominately Jewish. Beyond that, I failed to communicate
my point successfully to Mr. Kamlet and perhaps others.
I will try again.
First of all, tithe is rooted in the Anglo Saxon words TEOTHE and
TEOGOTHA and it means 1/10 th. Thus, the tithe is 10% of your
increase (usually money in the non-agricultural setting) when
we are discussing it in the Biblical context.
1.) I assumed that Jews are under the Law requiring 10% of your
increase to be given to God.
2.) I assumed that the logical place to give that 10% is at the
local congregation.
My point is that the first 10% goes to God's work directly. AFTER the
first 10% then you are in the area of offerings or charity. This
money it would seem is the money that goes to the Red Cross
or whatever worthy organization or individual you are led to give to.
Is this incorrect for Jews (read here Orthodox, Conservative, and
Reform - 3 Answers maybe) ?
Please forgive my Christocentricity on this issue, but I thought
that Jews and Christians shared a common understanding on giving.
Christians (most denominations) are not required to tithe because
we are not specifically bound by the Law, but use the tithe
principle (which actually preceded the Law - see Abraham and Melchizedek)
as a gauge on how we relate to money.
Bob Brown {...ihnp4!akgua!rjb}