teitz@aecom.UUCP (Eliyahu Teitz) (04/03/85)
I just want to wish everyone a happy, and healthy pesach. Eliyahu Teitz. *** REPLACE THIS LINE WITH YOUR MESSAGE ***
arig@cvl.UUCP (Ari Gross) (04/03/85)
I heard over the past shabbos several nice interpretations on
various portions of the Haggadah (in the course of the shabbos hagadol
drasha) . I know that I am always looking for something to say at the
seder table and I'm sure there are others out there who feel the same
way. With that in mind, I'd like to give over two "pshatim" that I
particularly enjoyed (BTW, these were all given over during a shabbos
hagadol drasha by Rav Shragi Kawior, formerly of Yeshivas Ner Yisroel,
Baltimore):
1] This pshat was said over in the name of Harav Ovadiah Yosef.
The Haggadah opens with the words "ha lachma ania" -- "this poor
bread that our fathers ate in Egypt;let all who are hungry come and
eat...". The question that is commonly asked at the seder is why is
this portion of the Haggadah in Aramaic while the rest of the Haggadah
(with certain exceptions -- "chad gadia") in Hebrew . The answer
commonly given is that we are inviting all who are hungry to come
and join us for the pesach seder and thus the language of the Haggadah
for this portion is in the vernacular tongue of those days, Aramaic, so
that even the layman could understand it . An alternative question, Rav
Ovadiah points out, is how are we permitted to recite a portion of the
Haggadah in a language other than Hebrew? The Talmud relates (Sotah ?)
that the angels in heaven only understand Hebrew and that one should
therefore pray in that language in order that the angels understand what
one is praying for and properly convey that request to G-d. The Talmud
goes on to say that if one prays with a minyan then he can pray in other
languages since G-d listens directly to tephilot said with a minyan
("kra'u'hu bee'yoto ka'rov") and G-d understands all the languages of
man. Thus the kaddish is recited in Aramaic, but can only be recited
with a minyan . The Talmud also inquires into the actions of a
particular rabbi who used to pray at the bedside of one who was sick in
Aramaic and not in Hebrew . The Talmud goes on to explain that this
rabbi was entitled to pray in Aramaic since G-d dwells among those who
are sick and in need of healing . Thus when G-d's presence is directly
felt and is presiding over a given situation one is entitled to pray in
foreign tongues and is not restricted to Hebrew. So too on Pesach at the
seder, Rav Ovadiah concludes, it is a "l'ail shimurim" -- a night when
G-d watches closely over His People -- "ani v'loh mal'ach" , G-d takes
direct charge of Bnei Yisroel and doesn't relegate that reponsibility
to His mal'achim (angels) -- on this night we may take the liberty of
saying a portion of the Haggadah in Aramaic.
(to be continued)
Ari Gross
arig@cvl.UUCP (Ari Gross) (04/04/85)
Here is the second "pshetl" on the Haggadah that I promised to
relate.
BTW, the last 'vort referred to two gemaras;they are in Sotah 33 and
Shabbos 12.
2] This piece on the Haggadah was told over to me by Rav Shragie Kawior.
The Talmud (Brachos 9b) relates an interpretation that "Bei Rav Yanai"
had on a well-known verse in Shemot, Ch. 11. The verse says "Da'ber nah
Be'aznei Ha'am", G-d implores Moses, "please, go speak to the people,and
ask them that each one may borrow from his neighbor vessels of gold and
silver". Bei Rav Yanai say on this verse :
"Nah" is none other than a language of request. Said G-d to
Moses,"I beg of you Moses go and tell the Children of Israel that they
be so kind as to borrow from their Egyptian neighbors vessels of gold
and silver so that the Righteous One not complain , saying He kept his
promise of "they will be enslaved and afflicted" but not his promise of
"and afterwards they will leave with great wealth"."
Rashi comments that this "Righteous One" of which Bei Rav Yanai speak is
none other than Avraham , to whom G-d made the promise of "they will be
enslaved and afflicted , but afterwards they will leave with great wealth".
One can ask, why is G-d worried about what Avraham will say, what about
the fact that He made a commitment, a promise, that Bnei Yisroel would
leave Egypt in affluence; doesn't He have to keep His promise for its own
sake, not because of what Avraham Aveinu may or may not say?
Perhaps this can be better understood in light of another gemara.
In Berachos 32a Bei Rav Yanai are qouted as saying the following:
"V'dee Za'hav"(Devarim, Ch. 1), what is V'dee Za'hav? Bei Rav
Yanai say : Moses said to the Almighty "because of the silver
and gold that you forced on them (when they left Egypt) until
they had to say "dei" (enough), that is what caused them to
make the golden calf".
With this comment on the pasuk from Bei Rav Yanai we can see that they
are consistent with what they said earlier. Bei Rav Yanai are of the opinion
that it was the taking out from Egypt all the gold and silver that Bnei
Yisroel took with them that was responsible for the sin of the "eigel"
(golden calf). Thus, Moses turns around and blames G-d for the sin of the
golden calf saying that it was caused because G-d encouraged Bnei Yisroel
to leave with so much gold and silver belonging to their Egyptian neighbors.
Therefore, even though G-d made a promise of "they will leave with great
wealth", He had a right to renege on this promise since He knew it would
lead to Bnei Yisroel's undoing . G-d must keep His promises when they are
for the good (see Rambam , hakdama l'mishnayos) but not when they forbode
bad things for the Children of Israel. Thus, Hashem , for the sake of
B'nei Yisroel, would have gone back on the promise of "great wealth", if
not for Avraham, "sheloh yo'mar oto tzadik...".
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Ari Gross