wmartin@brl-tgr.ARPA (Will Martin ) (07/25/84)
What is the origin of the term "John Doe" for an unknown male person (or body)? Is this an "official" term, however that may be defined? Is "Jane Doe" the female equivalent, or does "John Doe" act as a non-sex-specific general term? I have also heard "Baby Doe" used recently in the case about medical treatment for an infant. Is this term in any way "Official", or was it a media invention? If it is a valid term, at what age does "Baby Doe" become "John Doe", and why is there no sex-identification for "Baby Doe", as there is for "John"? Who chose "Doe" as the name, and what was the rationale for "Doe" as opposed to "Jones" or "X" or whatever? Will
dave@utcsrgv.UUCP (Dave Sherman) (07/30/84)
In article <3570@brl-tgr.ARPA> wmartin@brl-tgr.ARPA (Will Martin ) writes:
~| What is the origin of the term "John Doe" for an unknown male person
~| (or body)? Is this an "official" term, however that may be defined?
~| Is "Jane Doe" the female equivalent, or does "John Doe" act as a
~| non-sex-specific general term?
Yes, it is a legally-accepted way of specifying an unknown person.
The female equivalent is indeed Jane Doe. The usage goes back
a few hundred years, I believe; I do not know its origin.
Dave Sherman
Toronto
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{allegra,cornell,decvax,ihnp4,linus,utzoo}!utcsrgv!dave