[net.religion] Logical paradoxes in the notion of omnipotence?

stuart@gargoyle.UChicago.UUCP (Stuart Kurtz) (09/07/84)

Wayne Christopher (faustus@ucbvax) suggests that the notion of
an omnipotent being is logically inconsistant, pointing out the
apparent paradox "Can God create a rock too heavy for Him to
lift?"

A few months ago, a suggested a simple resolution to this paradox --
Yes, because an omnipotent being should, being all powerful, be able
to limit his own power, thereby ceasing to be omnipotent.

The notion of omnipotence is certainly fraught with logical
difficulties, and some care must go into deciding what omnipotent
means.  For example, should an omnipotent entity be able to enforce a
logical contradiction, e.g. "0 = 1"?  What would it mean to have
such a contradiction enforced?

Stu

hawk@oliven.UUCP (09/12/84)

~For example, should an omnipotent entity be able to enforce a
~logical contradiction, e.g. "0 = 1"?  What would it mean to have
~such a contradiction enforced?

It simply wouldn't be contradictory.
-- 
   rick                                     (Rick Hawkins @ Olivetti ATC)
[hplabs|zehntel|fortune|ios|tolerant|allegra|tymix]!oliveb!oliven!hawk

steiny@scc.UUCP (Don Steiny) (09/16/84)

***

	The sentence:

	This sentence is false.

is considered logically meaningless because of a confusion of logical
levels.  The sentence is on the "object level".  Whether or not
the sentence is true is a meta-level,  because is is talking about the
sentence.

	Saying that the universe was created is a statement about the
universe.  If the creator is one of the things in the universe it
is the same level confusion.  

	Likewise with "omnipotance".   If we say

	X is omnipotant

	and if X makes the statement

	I am omnipotant

	then we have the Epimenidies paradox.  Emimenidies was a Createn
who said "All Createns are liars".   The "paradox" is not really
a paradox because when a lower logical level makes statements about
a higher logical level the statments are considered logically meaningless.
They are neither true nor false, but ill-formed and undefined.

-- 
"Damn, more bats  ... Someone get me a ruler!"

	Don Steiny - Personetics @ (408) 425-0382
	109 Torrey Pine Terr.
	Santa Cruz, Calif. 95060
	ihnp4!pesnta  -\
	fortune!idsvax -> scc!steiny
	ucbvax!twg    -/

stuart@gargoyle.UChicago.UUCP (Stuart Kurtz) (09/19/84)

Don Steiny argues that paradoxes such as "This sentence is false" can be
resolved by disallowing them on the grounds of a confusion of levels.  I
have never been satisfied by such an analysis: self-reference is too useful
a technical tool in mathematical logic/theoretic computer science for me to
part with it easily.

The approach suggested is reminicient of Russell's types.

It is clear that this approach is viable, but it seems to prohibit analysis
an innocuous sentence such as "I am Stuart Kurtz", which is certain true
when stated by this writer.  Indeed, if you study the foundations of
mathematics, you'll find that the Russell-Whitehead type system (the formal
version of the levels Don S. speaks of) is not the logical system of choice
today.

Let us consider for a moment how the prevalent 1st order logics deal with
paradoxes such as "This sentence is false."

The key to the analysis is that the notions of "true" and "false" are
defined in the meta-theory.  Therefore there is no paradox unless the
sentence "This sentence is false" can be translated into the 1st order
language in question.  The Epimenidies paradox proves that it cannot be.
Now, it is possible to express the notion "This sentence is not provable"
within sufficiently powerful 1st order systems (this observation leads
immediately to the incompleteness theorem); however provability is the
merest shadow of truth.

Summarizing, the usual analysis of "This sentence is false" rejects the
sentence as ill-formed because the term "false" cannot be adequately
expressed within the system, not because the sentence refers to itself.

Now, back to the notion of omnipotence.  Perhaps it can indeed be shown to
be paradoxical, although I remain unconvinced of this.  At this point, all I
can agree with is that if the notion of omnipotence is consistent, it has
some unexpected consequences.

Stu

ihnp4!gargoyle!stuart

mark@uf-csg.UUCP (mark fishman [fac]) (10/11/84)

<>
     Seems curious that no one on the SIG's ever been exposed to the most
primitive rudiments of mathematical 
logical -- which is to day, specifically, type theory.  It's an altogether
trivial, primitive and not very esoteric observation that the question, "Can an
all-powerful being create a rock HE/SHE/IT can't lift" is semantically
ill-formed in the worst sense, and demonstrates only the cognitive deficiencies
of the poser.  Look:  The modal form "able to" can apply only to sentences that
don't include negations of itself.  Russell recognized this umpteen years ago
in the Principia.  You'd think that somebody else might have heard of this only
seminal result in the history of twentieth-sentury logic.  But then again,
maybe not in a user population capable of taking seriously questions of
magicness and fanciful superstition, in the first place.
     I really believe that anybody is entitled to nurture any exotic delusions
he or she likes, provided they don't lead to his or her acting to crush and
maim other people (religion too often conduces to this), but why pretend
rationality is upward compatible with the silly, atmospheric fuzziness?

....innocuously yours..

----------
The opinions herein expressed are irrelevant, inflammatory and possibly 
fattening.  They do not represent those of the University of Florida or of any
known biological organism or mythical construct.

mark@uf-csg.UUCP (mark fishman [fac]) (10/11/84)

<>

<>
     Seems curious that no one on the SIG's ever been exposed to the most
primitive rudiments of mathematical 
logic -- which is to say, type theory.  It's an altogether trivial, primitive
and not very esoteric observation that the question, "Can an
all-powerful being create a rock HE/SHE/IT can't lift?" is semantically
ill-formed in the worst sense, and demonstrates only the cognitive 
deficiencies of the poser.  Look:  The modal form "able to" can apply only to
sentences that don't end up including,  thereby, explicit negations of the 
resultant proposition.  Russell recognized this umpteen years ago in the 
Principia.  You'd think that somebody else might have heard of this *merely 
seminal* result in the history of twentieth-sentury logic.  But then again, 
maybe not in a user population capable of taking seriously questions of 
magicness and fanciful superstition, in the first place.
     I really believe that anybody is entitled to nurture any exotic 
delusions he or she likes, provided they don't lead to his or her acting to 
crush and
maim other people (religion too often conduces to this), but why pretend
rationality is upward compatible with the silly, atmospheric fuzziness?

....innocuously yours..

----------
The opinions herein expressed are irrelevant, inflammatory and possibly 
fattening.  They do not represent those of the University of Florida or of 
any
known biological organism or mythical construct.