[net.religion] on the Virgin Birth

david@cvl.UUCP (David Harwood) (04/28/85)

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>From: mangoe@umcp-cs.UUCP (Charley Wingate)
Newsgroups: net.religion
Subject: Re: the Virgin and Israel
Message-ID: <5269@umcp-cs.UUCP>
Date: 28 Apr 85 03:59:16 GMT
Date-Received: 28 Apr 85 03:26:06 GMT
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In article <353@cvl.UUCP> david@cvl.UUCP (David Harwood) writes:
>	The NT citations, as of Isaiah above, of the OT are
>known to be citations of the Greek Septuagint (LXX) translation
>by Jewish scholars before the time of Christ. They themselves
>translated the Hebrew 'almah', occuring in Isaiah, as 'parthenos' 
>(virgin) despite the fact that it may mean 'young maiden'. Since
>this was their translation, not the Christians', it suggests they
>attached a 'theological' significance to the passage in Isaiah,
>but not the usual 'Christian' one, although these may have been
>related in the minds of the Jewish community of Matthew. It is
>quite natural for the LXX, as well as Jews of Jesus time, to have
>intended 'virgin' to represent the undefiled, beloved Israel of God,
>from who would come the Messiah, through the spirit of God.

All this may be true, but it represents an argument FOR Matthew citing that
LXX text, not evidence about the Virgin Birth itself.  If you removed the
reference to that birth from the NT, there is still considerable NT text
which directly states this doctrine.  For example, elsewhere in the same
passage, it states that Joseph wanted to end the engagement, because his
bride-to-be was pregnant.  The appearance of the angel mentioned in verse 24
was in fact to tell Joseph that everything was OK, by DIRECTLY STATING the
doctrine.  The facts of the engagement are corroborated in the Lukan version.

Charley Wingate   umcp-cs!mangoe
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	I'm not arguing against its use in Gospel accounts: I am simply
suggesting why it was included -- for its Jewish theological significance.
You remember that Isaiah also wrote this at the time of a real birth, still
there was a traditionally (Messianic) prophetic significance. (Prophets
frequently extrapolated from events in their lives, eg Hosea,...) I agree
that Matthew saw the fulfilment of this prophecy -- but primarily he saw
the fulfillment of the spiritual significance, not of the literal. Frankly,
to me, it does not make any difference whether the physical birth of Christ
was any more miraculous than any other, the question is whether Jesus 
was born of God, with an existential and historical significance that is
unique.
	By the way, it is sometimes said, as Paul said, that the sons of
God were conceived by God from the womb. He even says that all creation is
groaning until the time when the sons of God are revealed. My point is that
we should appreciate the spiritual significance of these accounts -- since
that is the reason they were included.
	Finally, as I have mentioned before, if the Virgin Birth as a
material event were so important, why is it that Paul, the first great
theologian as well as evangelist, writing before the Gospels themselves,
never refers to the virgin birth; beside this, neither does Mark, the
earliest Gospel and presumably a Petrine account, refer to this material
event; and neither does John, the last of the accounts, the one which
emphasizes the figurative aspect of the Gospel. (By the way, Paul also
does not refer to Jesus as the Only Son of God, but calls him the
firstborn (the prototype if you will).)
	I don't deny that Matthew (and Luke) have descriptions which
make the event seem material -- but they also are very different accounts,
with differing events that have clearly theological significance, eg the
account of the star-gazers (magi) who bring their gifts to honor the
Messiah is obviously eternal (It is said in Hebrews, and elsewhere in
the NT, citing Psalms, that God descends among men, taking them with their
gifts, for his purposes, like Paul was taken 'captive' on the road to
Damascus.) 
	It may very well be that Mary and Joseph were made aware
in the beginning that this child was unusual.