[net.religion] Pfui

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (01/01/70)

> 	Hmm, it seems your definition of Free Will involves the
> capacity to magically, instantaneously accomplish a decision by
> force of will alone! With such a definition I can see why you do
> not believe it exists! All my definition requirtes is that I have
> the capability of carrying out my decisions as long as I am not
> directly constrained by external forces. I consider the past
> experiences and existing emotional structures which are involved
> in making a decision to be *internal* factors, and thus not in any
> way contradictory to my ability to make decisions. [FRIESEN]

Yes, you have hit the definition of free will as I understand right on
the head.  Actually, what you have hit on the head are the implications
of such a definition of free will as understood by English speaking people.
My point is that we cannot whimsically choose to change the definition of
something that, as you rightly say, does not exist, in order to "get"
the term to point to something that DOES exist.  To do so is both deceptive
and contrary to the notion of language and communication.  It is analogous
to calling eastern bloc countries "democratic republics", or missiles
by the name "Peacekeeper", or horses by the name "unicorn".  You cannot
just say "now I mean this" and expect the rest of the world to understand.
Even if all the philosophers in the world took a vote, it would not
change the meaning of the word.  Only the body of speakers of a language
can do that by usage.  And people generally don't take very well to
changing the meanings of words at whim so that oil tub prickle bottom
vestige catharsis beany.

Furthermore, you talk of free will by saying your past experiences and
existing emotional factors are "internal factors", and thus exempt from
examination in determining how free it all is.  But clearly those past
experiences were obtained (initially) in an unfree fashion (say,
during infancy), which determined the way in which later experiences were
integrated, which determined...  Given this chain of dependencies, the
final outcome is surely not a free choice:  you are constrained by what
you have become due to past experiences.  To claim "but that's in the
past" seems awfully arbitrary to me.  Can you explain your basis for such
exclusion?

> If I make a
> decision to change myself, and that decision was made on the basis
> of my own internal needs and desires, then I consider that decision
> to have been freely made, and any manipulation of externals that I
> need to accomplish it may be considered to proceed from the decision.

But the means to (or not to) be able to make decisions so as to make
such changes is ALSO determined (or not) by past experiences.  Granted,
being in that state of mind where you are able to induce such changes in
yourself offers you the most control over your life, and is arguably
the "most" free line of choice.  But the ability to do this or not is
rooted in past learning experiences, and thus not truly free.  Can you
choose to learn to take control in this way?  If you can, chances are
you already have learned enough to take the first step and thus (possibly,
given the right circumstances) subsequent steps.  But the possibility exists
that you might not be able.

>>Because the decision to do that was in fact based on external control!!!
>>Because the only reason you decided to choose that was because of the
>>way your mind happened to be set up at the time.  YOU had the opportunity
>>to choose that self-conditioning therapy of sorts because you had the
>>fortuitousness to have your mind set up to be able to make such a decision.

> 	But I do not call such things external, I call them internal.

But their roots are just as external as any other.  I fail to see where
the basis of distinction is.

>>Others in your situation, who want to change the way things are for them,
>>may not be amenable to making such a decision.  They might choose to pray
>>for the change to happen, or to just forget about it and "accept" the way
>>things are.

> 	Well, I consider those to be viable alternatives also, they
> are not even mutually exvclusive. Or don't you realise that to "just
> forget about it and accept the way things are" is itself a sort of
> change, a change in one's attitude towards a situation!

In some cases, but in such cases it is learned as a result of the
experience.  In other cases, it is already part of the mindset.
-- 
"I was walking down the street.  A man came up to me and asked me what was the
 capital of Bolivia.  I hesitated.  Three sailors jumped me.  The next thing I
 knew I was making chicken salad."
"I don't believe that for a minute.  Everyone knows the capital of Bolivia is
 La Paz."				Rich Rosen    pyuxd!rlr

friesen@psivax.UUCP (Stanley Friesen) (01/01/70)

In article <1499@pyuxd.UUCP> rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) writes:
>All you've shown is that you have to power to want to condition yourself not
>to do something.  That happens to be great, and one of the best and most useful
>things about being human.  I wouldn't call it "free will" though.  The fact
>that it took time to squelch the desires and recondition yourself proves my
>point:  you cannot simply will a desire (!) into or out of existence.
>-- 
	Well, here is the main difference between us, that is
*exactly* what I call free will. I do not remember any proponent of
free will ever claiming the ability to magically will a result
instantly. That is totally irrelevent to free will as far as I am
concerned. Why should my inability to do something I never claimed was
possible have any bearing on the existence of free will?
-- 

				Sarima (Stanley Friesen)

{trwrb|allegra|cbosgd|hplabs|ihnp4|aero!uscvax!akgua}!sdcrdcf!psivax!friesen
or {ttdica|quad1|bellcore|scgvaxd}!psivax!friesen

ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (07/31/85)

>I cannot decide to want to want to eat apricots, no more than you can decide
>to want to like people if you don't.  New experiences might change that, but
>it is not a matter of "will". [Rich]

    Speak for yourself, Rich. 
    
    It is becoming clear to me that difference of opinion on this issue
    ultimately derives from personal experience.

-michael

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/02/85)

>>I cannot decide to want to want to eat apricots, no more than you can decide
>>to want to like people if you don't.  New experiences might change that, but
>>it is not a matter of "will". [Rich]

>     Speak for yourself, Rich. 
>     
>     It is becoming clear to me that difference of opinion on this issue
>     ultimately derives from personal experience.
> -michael

Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
without "new experiences"...
-- 
Anything's possible, but only a few things actually happen.
					Rich Rosen    pyuxd!rlr

friesen@psivax.UUCP (Stanley Friesen) (08/06/85)

In article <1388@pyuxd.UUCP> rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) writes:
>
>>     Speak for yourself, Rich. 
>>     
>>     It is becoming clear to me that difference of opinion on this issue
>>     ultimately derives from personal experience.
>> -michael
>
>Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
>didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
>despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
>behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
>without "new experiences"...

	Oh great! Now you want to say that free will in your
definition requires that only certain methods be used to accomplish
a decision! I am *sorry*, but if I make a decision to do something
I see no reason why I cannot be free to accomplish that goal in any
manner that works. If I decide to like something and I conclude that
self-conditioning is the most effective way of doing this, then why
is that contrary to free-will, since the conditioning process was
initiated by *my* decision, not external control. And if this dort
of thing *isn't* possible, I might as well stop going to therapy and
save myself a lot of money every month!
-- 

				Sarima (Stanley Friesen)

{trwrb|allegra|cbosgd|hplabs|ihnp4|aero!uscvax!akgua}!sdcrdcf!psivax!friesen
or {ttdica|quad1|bellcore|scgvaxd}!psivax!friesen

ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (08/07/85)

>>>I cannot decide to want to want to eat apricots, no more than you can 
>>>decide to want to like people if you don't.  New experiences might change 
>>>that, but it is not a matter of "will". [Rich]
>
>>     Speak for yourself, Rich. 
>>     
>>     It is becoming clear to me that difference of opinion on this issue
>>     ultimately derives from personal experience. [Not Rich]
>
>Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
>didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
>despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
>behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
>without "new experiences"... [Rich]

    OK.
    
    I do not like Scientific Materialism at all, so I decided to like it. 
    
        And I spoke to Nihil, the God of Scientific Materialism:

	"Our Father, who art not
	 I ignore Thee!"
		
        And lo, I did not behold
	the Materialist God Nihil,
        Clothed in Ether and Phlogiston.
        And Nihil did not reveal unto me:
        "Like what thou dost not like"

    This may seem unnecessarily contrary, but is not logically inconsistent:
    It is tautologically easy to have/not have something which does not exist,
    like Free Will, when I do not exist either.
   
    Which is yet another example, Rich:
    
	I apparently used to wish for the existence of Something Supernatural,
	(as yet have pointed out so very many times)
	yet here I am blissfully nonexistent.

    "The real world truly exists
     But nothing actually happens there.."

-not Rich Rosen

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/09/85)

>>Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
>>didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
>>despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
>>behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
>>without "new experiences"... [Rich]

>     OK.
>     I do not like Scientific Materialism at all, so I decided to like it. 
    
This is somewhat similar to the way a number of people seem to form beliefs:
just choosing to "like" (believe in) a particular set based on what the
family and friends do without thinking about them.  But seriously, what do
you now like about it?

>         And I spoke to Nihil, the God of Scientific Materialism:
> 	"Our Father, who art not
> 	 I ignore Thee!"

I wonder if the difference between sanity and insanity is that sane people
ignore the things that are not, while insane people can't seem to...

>     This may seem unnecessarily contrary, but is not logically inconsistent:
>     It is tautologically easy to have/not have something which does not exist,
>     like Free Will, when I do not exist either.
   
Did you do as I asked and stab yourself in the arm with a fork?  After all,
if you don't exist, it won't hurt, will it?

>     "The real world truly exists
>      But nothing actually happens there.."

You just don't go out to the right clubs...

> -not Rich Rosen  [i.e., MICHAEL ELLIS]
-- 
Anything's possible, but only a few things actually happen.
					NOT Not Rich Rosen    pyuxd!rlr

sher@rochester.UUCP (David Sher) (08/11/85)

>In article <1388@pyuxd.UUCP> rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) writes:
>>Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
>>didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
>>despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
>>behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
>>without "new experiences"...

I believe a challenge of this sort was aimed at me by the redoubtable
Rich Rosen.  So I choose to respond!  I have dredged up from memory an 
incident where I chose to change my desires.  It was about 4 or 5 years back
when I was begining to become adequate at judo.  My sensei (coach sort
of) had decided that I was overweight and told me to diet.  I chose
as the simplest route to stop desiring any deserts and any bread outside
of sandwiches.  I admit that it took about two days before my desires
left me entirely.  In this period I naturally did not partake of either
free standing bread or deserts (though both were offered to me free of
charge due to the benificence of the Yale dining halls) but this is natural
since I had already lost most of my desire for them.  After about a month
of this I broke my collar bone and decided I need any available form of
pleasure to deal with this depressing situation.  Fulfilling a desire
is an easy way to cheer oneself so I decided to once again desire
free standing bread and deserts.  It again took about two days.
-David Sher
sher@rochester
seismo!rochester!sher
Ps: I will be at a conference about a week so if you would like me
to see your replies please send them as well as posting, otherwise they
might expire before I get to them.

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/12/85)

>>Can you give an example from your personal experience of something you
>>didn't like that you chose to like.  Try it.  Take something you absolutely
>>despise, and decide to like it.  Remember, no conditioning to change your
>>behavior toward that thing will be allowed.  After all, you can do it
>>without "new experiences"...  [ROSEN]

> 	Oh great! Now you want to say that free will in your
> definition requires that only certain methods be used to accomplish
> a decision! [FRIESEN]

Those "certain methods" being freedom from externals.  If you have to alter
your mind(set) using external modification, if you cannot simply WILL
the change to occur, you have struck a death blow to the notion of free will.
You do have the power to accomplish this decision, but it is not decided
freely.

> I am *sorry*, but if I make a decision to do something
> I see no reason why I cannot be free to accomplish that goal in any
> manner that works. If I decide to like something and I conclude that
> self-conditioning is the most effective way of doing this, then why
> is that contrary to free-will, since the conditioning process was
> initiated by *my* decision, not external control.

Because the decision to do that was in fact based on external control!!!
Because the only reason you decided to choose that was because of the
way your mind happened to be set up at the time.  YOU had the opportunity
to choose that self-conditioning therapy of sorts because you had the
fortuitousness to have your mind set up to be able to make such a decision.
Others in your situation, who want to change the way things are for them,
may not be amenable to making such a decision.  They might choose to pray
for the change to happen, or to just forget about it and "accept" the way
things are.  But whatever decision is made is going to be based on your
previous conditioning and experiences.  You were just lucky enough to have
learned to realize a way in which you can achieve change.  But the way in
which that decision was made was not free.

> And if this sort of thing *isn't* possible, I might as well stop going to
> therapy and save myself a lot of money every month!

If you say so.  It seems to me that a decision to choose such therapy, if
its purpose is indeed to cause new conditioning or elimination of negative
learned conditioned responses, is a very good one.  It just wasn't made
"freely".  What's wrong with that?  What decision IS made freely?
-- 
"Do I just cut 'em up like regular chickens?"    Rich Rosen    ihnp4!pyuxd!rlr

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/14/85)

All you've shown is that you have to power to want to condition yourself not
to do something.  That happens to be great, and one of the best and most useful
things about being human.  I wouldn't call it "free will" though.  The fact
that it took time to squelch the desires and recondition yourself proves my
point:  you cannot simply will a desire (!) into or out of existence.
-- 
"Do I just cut 'em up like regular chickens?"    Rich Rosen    ihnp4!pyuxd!rlr

friesen@psivax.UUCP (Stanley Friesen) (08/16/85)

In article <1474@pyuxd.UUCP> rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) writes:
>
>> 	Oh great! Now you want to say that free will in your
>> definition requires that only certain methods be used to accomplish
>> a decision! [FRIESEN]
>
>Those "certain methods" being freedom from externals.  If you have to alter
>your mind(set) using external modification, if you cannot simply WILL
>the change to occur, you have struck a death blow to the notion of free will.
>You do have the power to accomplish this decision, but it is not decided
>freely.
>
	Hmm, it seems your definition of Free Will involves the
capacity to magically, instantaneously accomplish a decision by
force of will alone! With such a definition I can see why you do
not believe it exists! All my definition requirtes is that I have
the capability of carrying out my decisions as long as I am not
directly constrained by external forces. I consider the past
experiences and existing emotional structures which are involved
in making a decision to be *internal* factors, and thus not in any
way contradictory to my ability to make decisions. If I make a
decision to change myself, and that decision was made on the basis
of my own internal needs and desires, then I consider that decision
to have been freely made, and any manipulation of externals that I
need to accomplish it may be considered to proceed from the decision.

>
>Because the decision to do that was in fact based on external control!!!
>Because the only reason you decided to choose that was because of the
>way your mind happened to be set up at the time.  YOU had the opportunity
>to choose that self-conditioning therapy of sorts because you had the
>fortuitousness to have your mind set up to be able to make such a decision.

	But I do not call such things external, I call them internal.

>Others in your situation, who want to change the way things are for them,
>may not be amenable to making such a decision.  They might choose to pray
>for the change to happen, or to just forget about it and "accept" the way
>things are.
>
	Well, I consider those to be viable alternatives also, they
are not even mutually exvclusive. Or don't you realise that to "just
forget about it and accept the way things are" is itself a sort of
change, a change in one's attitude towards a situation!

-- 

				Sarima (Stanley Friesen)

{trwrb|allegra|cbosgd|hplabs|ihnp4|aero!uscvax!akgua}!sdcrdcf!psivax!friesen
or {ttdica|quad1|bellcore|scgvaxd}!psivax!friesen

js2j@mhuxt.UUCP (sonntag) (08/20/85)

> > 	Hmm, it seems your definition of Free Will involves the
> > capacity to magically, instantaneously accomplish a decision by
> > force of will alone! With such a definition I can see why you do
> > not believe it exists! All my definition requirtes is that I have
> > the capability of carrying out my decisions as long as I am not
> > directly constrained by external forces. I consider the past
> > experiences and existing emotional structures which are involved
> > in making a decision to be *internal* factors, and thus not in any
> > way contradictory to my ability to make decisions. [FRIESEN]
> 
> Yes, you have hit the definition of free will as I understand right on
> the head.  Actually, what you have hit on the head are the implications
> of such a definition of free will as understood by English speaking people.
> My point is that we cannot whimsically choose to change the definition of
> something that, as you rightly say, does not exist, in order to "get"
> the term to point to something that DOES exist.

     Perhaps you could clear up just one little detail for me, Rich.  If
the definition of free will which *you* use is the real, historically used
definition of the term, why has the existence of 'free will' been a subject
of debate for so long?  From your definition, it's obvious that 'free will'
does not exist, but the existance of free will has been debated by 
philosophers for centuries, at least.  Were they dim, or were they using
a different definition?
-- 
Jeff Sonntag
ihnp4!mhuxt!js2j
    "Just them up like regular chicken cuts, do I?" - Yoda

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/21/85)

>      Perhaps you could clear up just one little detail for me, Rich.  If
> the definition of free will which *you* use is the real, historically used
> definition of the term, why has the existence of 'free will' been a subject
> of debate for so long?  From your definition, it's obvious that 'free will'
> does not exist, but the existance of free will has been debated by 
> philosophers for centuries, at least.  Were they dim, or were they using
> a different definition? [SONNTAG]

Obviously not.  It wasn't quite so "obvious" to them, perhaps, because
they wishfully thought up things like souls and such to account for what
they perceived as free will.  The notion that souls (or agents external
to physical reality---whatever that means) do not exist is not fully accepted
even today.  Many people who rooted their thinking in religious beliefs
just took it for granted that there were.  The fact that this definition
depends on such things as souls does not ipso facto make it bad.  In fact,
it makes it quite good if you happen to believe in such things.  Unfortunately,
such a belief is a form of circular reason.  (We have free will because we
have souls, which we know to exist because we have free will, because...)
It is only without the added notion of souls, which serves only to make our
wishful wishes come true, that the definition of free will becomes
"obviously" wrong.
-- 
Popular consensus says that reality is based on popular consensus.
						Rich Rosen   pyuxd!rlr

ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (08/23/85)

>>      Perhaps you could clear up just one little detail for me, Rich.  If
>> the definition of free will which *you* use is the real, historically used
>> definition of the term, why has the existence of 'free will' been a subject
>> of debate for so long?  From your definition, it's obvious that 'free will'
>> does not exist, but the existance of free will has been debated by 
>> philosophers for centuries, at least.  Were they dim, or were they using
>> a different definition? [SONNTAG]
>
>Obviously not.  It wasn't quite so "obvious" to them, perhaps, because
>they wishfully thought up things like souls and such to account for what
>they perceived as free will.  The notion that souls (or agents external
>to physical reality---whatever that means) do not exist is not fully accepted
>even today. [Rich Rosen]

    Whether or not `X exists' depends on one's general axioms, definitions,
    etc about `reality' ie - Metaphysics.

    For example, Rich, your metaphysics seem to indicate that everything is
    physical matter and interactions thereof (which would seem to deny
    reality to awareness, but that's not important), that anything mental is
    illusory, that all phenomena are reductionistically determined by
    causes.

    Assuming that I have truly characterized your metaphysics:

        `acausal' spontaneous decay MUST have a cause.
	`free will' cannot exist because, by definition, all things
	            are determined.
	`external to physical reality' is bogus, by definition

    The above would clearly result by logical necessity.

    However, you'd have to also conclude, if everything has a cause, that:

        There is also a cause for `awareness'. (let's call it a `luos')
	There is also a cause for the universe. (let's call it `Dog')

   Of course, they are physical entities, and they are reduceable, like
   everything else, to lower level entities. But they would seem to be
   required by your Metaphysics.

   Anyway, I believe the Greek philosophers (Aristotle, etc.), used the
   words `soul' and `God' not out of faith, but out of logical necessity, by
   force of the fundamental axioms of logic and their basic metaphysical
   assertions, just as I `proved' the existence of luoses and Dog.

   Sorry if I've misunderstood your metaphysics. I'm simply trying to 
   understand what you believe, so we may all understand you better.

   Please clarify..

>Many people who rooted their thinking in religious beliefs just took it for
>granted that there were.  The fact that this definition depends on such
>things as souls does not ipso facto make it bad.  In fact, it makes it quite
>good if you happen to believe in such things.  Unfortunately, such a belief
>is a form of circular reason.  (We have free will because we have souls,
>which we know to exist because we have free will, because...) It is only
>without the added notion of souls, which serves only to make our wishful
>wishes come true, that the definition of free will becomes "obviously"
>wrong.

    Who has ever given that argument? And who are all these freewillers that
    `wish for' souls to exist? 

    Furthermore, the circular argument pro-free will you just presented is as
    empty as the your favorite anti-freewill argument:

        If free will exists, then it must be a physical phenomenon
	All physical phenomena are determined by causes
	therefore free will is determined by causes
	but if it is determined then it is not free

    This is not unreasonable; it logically flows from your axioms.

    But freedom, like love or beauty, is a real and irreducible state of
    mind (for some of us), even should our universe be totally deterministic.

    Can I exist now?

-not Rich Rosen

    The body indeed has a genuine ruler
    but that is the way itself
    the mysterious order which runs through all things
    which we follow spontaneously
    as soon as we cease to use rationality to analyze alternatives

-Chuang Tzu

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/24/85)

>>All you've shown is that you have to power to want to condition yourself not
>>to do something. That happens to be great, and one of the best and most useful
>>things about being human.  I wouldn't call it "free will" though.  The fact
>>that it took time to squelch the desires and recondition yourself proves my
>>point:  you cannot simply will a desire (!) into or out of existence.

> 	Well, here is the main difference between us, that is
> *exactly* what I call free will. I do not remember any proponent of
> free will ever claiming the ability to magically will a result
> instantly. That is totally irrelevent to free will as far as I am
> concerned. Why should my inability to do something I never claimed was
> possible have any bearing on the existence of free will?

Because that's the definition.  What you call free will is hardly free.
If you cannot will your desires (and thus your actions) into or out of
existence, you are dependent upon the way your brain happens to be at that
time, and thus you are not free.  If it's NOT predisposed to doing what you
describe, due to not having learned it or other possibilities, then
it won't happen.
-- 
"to be nobody but yourself in a world which is doing its best night and day
 to make you like everybody else means to fight the hardest battle any human
 being can fight and never stop fighting."  - e. e. cummings
	Rich Rosen	ihnp4!pyuxd!rlr

rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen) (08/24/85)

>     Assuming that I have truly characterized your metaphysics:
> 
>         `acausal' spontaneous decay MUST have a cause.
> 	`free will' cannot exist because, by definition, all things
> 	            are determined.
> 	`external to physical reality' is bogus, by definition
> 
>     The above would clearly result by logical necessity.

Indeed.

>     However, you'd have to also conclude, if everything has a cause, that:
> 
>         There is also a cause for `awareness'. (let's call it a `luos')
> 	There is also a cause for the universe. (let's call it `Dog')

Or let's not.  Dog (or its reversal) has specific connotations of a
consciousness in charge, and louses (or whatever) have a connotation of
separateness from the physical entity.

>     Furthermore, the circular argument pro-free will you just presented is as
>     empty as the your favorite anti-freewill argument:
> 
>         If free will exists, then it must be a physical phenomenon
> 	All physical phenomena are determined by causes
> 	therefore free will is determined by causes
> 	but if it is determined then it is not free
> 
>     This is not unreasonable; it logically flows from your axioms.

But your first statement uses a word that makes no sense in the context.

>     But freedom, like love or beauty, is a real and irreducible state of
>     mind (for some of us), even should our universe be totally deterministic.

Love and beauty are observable phenomena by individuals.

>     Can I exist now?

No, stay in your cage. Outside of reality.  Where there are no causes.
-- 
Meanwhile, the Germans were engaging in their heavy cream experiments in
Finland, where the results kept coming out like Swiss cheese...
				Rich Rosen 	ihnp4!pyuxd!rlr