[net.philosophy] Tom Craver does ads for Spiedel

wex@ittvax.UUCP (Alan Wexelblat) (08/31/83)

Tom, you say that I have not responed to your points and then go on to
not only ignore what I have said, but twist and distort it so that it
is no longer even close to what I said.  I will put up with your redefining
the English language to suit your argument, but I find this deliberate
obfuscation *extremely* annoying.  If it continues, I shall simply stop
responding.  The idea here is to have a reasonable discussion.

	How can one understand the meaning of spoken or written 
	language, if one does not have rational ability?   
	
If we are to believe Chomsky, we understand language by virtue of structures
in the brain (which are genetically inherited).  These structures automatically
interpret the samples of natural langugage we hear, and construct what he calls
'phrase-structure rules,' which pick out the important elements in a sentence.
These elements are then somehow transferred to memory, often with contextual
information "attached."  (This is essentially a paraphrase of a Psych 150 
lecture; I don't know exactly who is responsible for the theories.)  The child
makes these associations early on, before 'reasoning' abilities are demonstrably
present.  In fact, some psychologists theorize that the activities associated
with learning natural language help build reasoning abilities.  I am not aware
of any current theories supporting your position of inborn rationality.

	(Though you *did* say "No" in response to "are you saying that 
	you dont have to think to understand".  Is this agreement?  The 
	context made it seem like you were disagreeing.)

My apologies if I was vague.  What I meant to say was this:  if you define
'thinking' as conscious cognitive activity, then, "No, thinking is not
necessary to understanding (see NL-learning, above)."  If you define 'thinking'
as *all* cognitive activity, then, "Yes, it is trivially true that thinking
is necessary to understanding."  Is that clearer?

	How does one *come* to the state of being able to 
	understand the meaning of a language, if not by 
	application of reason? 
	
See above.  Unfortunately, no one can really say how one comes to understand
anything!  Everyone admits that the NL sample given to the average child is
too small to account for acquisition by example.  But if you say that I learn
language by application of reason, then I must ask what you mean by reason.
As I explained in my last note, the dictionary does not connect learning and
reason at all.

	How would one decide how to apply those rules [of NL usage] 
	- by instinct?  
	
As explained above, Chomskian theory attributes this to structures in the brain.

	You did respond to the my points on the "exactly human" 
	issue, but until you can answer the above without reference 
	to reason, your definition of "human" is not any more 
	inclusive than mine.  
	
Two things:  one, I've just answered your points without reference to reason,
and two, I did not claim that my definition of human was any more inclusive 
than yours (nor do I see why it should be).  All I said was that it was 
possible to subdivide homo sapiens into categories of human/not-human without
reference to rationality.  Please read my articles more carefully if you want
to respond to them.

	I claim that rationality is required to learn this [NL].  
	I did not claim that all learning (EG memorization) 
	requires rationality.  
	
Yes, Tom, I know what you claim.  Care to support it?  I think I've supported
the counter-claim.

Now we get to the place where I started to get pissed off.  Tom has weaseled
and twisted my example (from Plato) around so that it no longer bears any
resemblance to the argument I made.  He then goes on to use that twisting
to justify accusing ME of supporting murder.  I refuse to re-print ANYTHING
from the TC example,s ince it bears so little resemblance to anything I have
been trying to say.  I'll simply state the case as Plato put it, and show how
it supports my conclusions.

First, the context of this example (in Plato) is the discussion of the goodness
or badness of keeping one's word.  Tom has argued (as did one of Plato's 
students, pardon my bad memory) that the only rational thing to do is to 
keep one's word.  He has argued (against Paul Torek's claim to the contrary) 
that the rationally selfish person would keep his promise, even if he knew he
could get away with breaking it.  Plato presents this case to demostrate, as I
now wish to do, that it is clearly the case that keeping one's word runs
counter to morality.  Ergo, the rational thing to do is not the moral thing to
do.  The purpose of showing this is to destroy TC's fundamental claim that
for all X, where X is an action,    RATIONAL(X) == MORAL(X).

I do not want to say that the opposite is true; rather, I wish to say that 
for all X, where X is an action,    RATIONAL(X) ?= MORAL(X), and the truth or
falsity of this possible relation is independent of the rationality property.

Now, let's put the example back to its original form:
A has loaned his sword to B, contingent on B's promise to return it whenever A
asks for it.  One day, A comes to B and asks for the sword.  The following 
conditions now hold.  A desires the sword for the purpose of killing two people.
B does not know these people (this is to avoid personal involvement, which might
bias results).  B is a rational individual, as is A.  If B does the rational
thing, and returns the sword, A will certainly commit murder.  No ill 
consequences will befall B if he follows this course of action.  By reason, it
is the rational thing to do.

If B does NOT return the sword however, it is not certain that A will not
commit murder anyway.  Additionally, B will have the harm of A's anger 
befall him.  That harm may or may not be physical; in any case, it is worse
than the no-harm stipulated above.  Lastly, B will have acted irrationally, by
breaking his word.  By reason, this is the irrational thing to do.

Plato says that the second course of action, despite its irrationality, is
the moral one.  He says that this morality is obvious to all men (something 
he thought was true of all morality, but that's another story entirely),
and I think that in reading this, most people will agree with Plato.  

Now, Tom, do you think that you can deal with this case based on the facts,
or are you going to resort to invention and distortion again?

Sincerely angry,
--Alan Wexelblat
decvax!ittvax!wex
(as of Sept 12: ucbvax!wex.UPenn@UDel-Relay)