[net.philosophy] Redefining free will?

ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (03/10/85)

>To argue that there might be something outside of cause and effect
>that is somehow related to our conciousness is so far from the
>common understanding of the word "free" that the expression "free
>will" as it is commonly interpreted in philosophy should be replaced
>with something suitable to what is being discussed.

    Apparently, thinking in strictly causal terms has become so ingrained to
    western minds that we have forgotten how to perceive things any other
    kind of way.

    Forgive me if I appear to be completely in the ozone, but the
    overwhelming sentiment in a vast quantity of metaphysical writings seems
    to be that one's awareness is directly proportional to one's freedom
    from the realm of cause and effect.

    A clear depiction of the vehicle by which such pure awareness may be
    attained can be found in Revelations, where the angel announces:

	        "And there shall be time no longer"

    ...thereby destroying the very fabric that links causes to effects.

    The scientific viewpoint can barely parse such utterances, naturally
    enough. Science, after all, is SUPPOSED to explain everything in terms
    of cause and effect.

-michael

    LightFlash put a question to Nothing's There
    `Are you something, sir? Or isn't anything there?'

jim@ISM780B.UUCP (03/13/85)

>    A clear depiction of the vehicle by which such pure awareness may be
>    attained can be found in Revelations, where the angel announces:
>
>                "And there shall be time no longer"

As with many religious utterances, this one is semantically void.
It is particularly silly when you realize how time-oriented are the phrases
"shall be" and "no longer".  So, there will be a point in time after which
there is no time, but before which there is?  I have trouble with most
so-called metaphysical writing because it is so fuzzy and analytically weak.
Mostly it is an attempt to sound very convincing about a particular
silly idea that is believed without basis.  The very moment you choose
to try to convince someone of something, you have entered into the world
of logic, proof, and analysis, i.e., science.  This is fundamental in the
nature of human discourse.

-- Jim Balter (ima!jim)

schwadro@aecom.UUCP (David Schwadron) (03/13/85)

>     The scientific viewpoint can barely parse such utterances, naturally
>     enough. Science, after all, is SUPPOSED to explain everything in terms
>     of cause and effect.
> 
> -michael

Well, maybe free will is a product of the quantum uncertainty of
our neurons firing. Science does have provisions for randomness,
a lack of cause-effect structure. It's called quantum mechanics.
There is even a minimum uncertainty (I think, though I'm not sure
:-)) inherent. 

I have a side question: Must cause precede effect??
					michab

....aecom!berger

jim@ISM780B.UUCP (03/16/85)

>Well, maybe free will is a product of the quantum uncertainty of
>our neurons firing.

I think the biggest problem with thinking of free will this way is that
you have no argument that there is an agent that *controls* these quantum
events, thus the "will" in "free will" is void.  And the multiple worlds
view says that all the possible decisions that might derive from the
various combinations of quantum events get made, in one universe or another.
It seems to me that the notion of free will requires an agent that causes
without being caused, and is not consonant with random or all-cases-occurring
events.

>I have a side question: Must cause precede effect??

A friend did a lot of work in this area, and one of his conclusions was
that there is no coherent model of causality which allows for backward
causation.  That is, if you try to come up with a definition of causality
which subsumes common sense notions, inherent in that definition is always a
directed temporal flow between cause and effect.  I don't know how to to
state this is a way that convinces, but the basic way to determine an answer
to the above question with some degree of confidence is to *formally define*
the terms.

-- Jim Balter (ima!jim)

davet@oakhill.UUCP (Dave Trissel) (03/18/85)

In article <1247@aecom.UUCP> schwadro@aecom.UUCP (David Schwadron) writes:
>>     ....... Science, after all, is SUPPOSED to explain everything in terms
>>     of cause and effect.
>> 
>> -michael
>
>Well, maybe free will is a product of the quantum uncertainty of
>our neurons firing. Science does have provisions for randomness,
>a lack of cause-effect structure. It's called quantum mechanics.

There are some interesting parallels here to some ideas in parapsychology.
That is that impressions of a PSI nature occur due to possible quantum level
interactions with neurons in the brain.  The more suface level "noise" so
to speak is diminished the more the subtle normally subconcious information
can be recognized at higher levels.

To give a real example that happened to me:

A week before Thanksgiving some years ago I was driving home from work when
for no apparent reason I found myself thinking of someone I met frequently
at a university computing center.  Having presence of mind to realize that
thoughts which do not follow from any previous thoughts often can be PSI
related I made a mental note of this.  The next day he called to tell me that
his wife had suggested they invite someone over for Thanksgiving.  When he
told me this I boldly stated that he and his wife were probably discussing
me at around 4:30 the previous day.  The silence on the phone was more than
enough to know I had hit right on the mark.  These things happen to me enough
to completely dismiss the thought of it being coincidence.  If it was only
a few times I would consider it so.

Anyway back to quantum events and the brain.  One theory goes that there are
enough event firings going on in the neurons that in effect a lot of "random"
noise is present and that PSI influences may come about due to interactions
on the "random generator" portion of the brain.

Interesting stuff this, if it turns out to have any basis in fact.

>I have a side question: Must cause precede effect??

I have found some reasons to think that cause and effect are somehow actually
intertwined in ways we can only now barely imagine.  Wish I could tune in
50 or 100 years from now and see how our standard concepts of time and
space have changed (if any.)

Dave Trissel         {ihnp4,seismo,gatech}!ut-sally!oakhill!davet

schwadro@aecom.UUCP (David Schwadron) (03/20/85)

> >Well, maybe free will is a product of the quantum uncertainty of
> >our neurons firing.
> 
> I think the biggest problem with thinking of free will this way is that
> you have no argument that there is an agent that *controls* these quantum
> events, thus the "will" in "free will" is void.  And the multiple worlds
> view says that all the possible decisions that might derive from the
> various combinations of quantum events get made, in one universe or another.
> It seems to me that the notion of free will requires an agent that causes
> without being caused, and is not consonant with random or all-cases-occurring
> events.
> 
> >I have a side question: Must cause precede effect??
> 
> A friend did a lot of work in this area, and one of his conclusions was
> that there is no coherent model of causality which allows for backward
> causation.  That is, if you try to come up with a definition of causality
> which subsumes common sense notions, inherent in that definition is always a
> directed temporal flow between cause and effect.  I don't know how to to
> state this is a way that convinces, but the basic way to determine an answer
> to the above question with some degree of confidence is to *formally define*
> the terms.
> 
> -- Jim Balter (ima!jim)

*** REPLACE THIS LINE WITH YOUR MESSAGE ***
Thanks Jim.
Just one question, defign "will". The "free" can be defigned as an
event without a cause, but what about "will". That the decision was
made because the agent wanted to make it???
				michab
			A Fugue in One Voice

...!philabs!aecom!berger

barry@ames.UUCP (Kenn Barry) (03/20/85)

>>                "And there shall be time no longer"
>
>As with many religious utterances, this one is semantically void.
>It is particularly silly when you realize how time-oriented are the phrases
>"shall be" and "no longer".  So, there will be a point in time after which
>there is no time, but before which there is?  I have trouble with most
>so-called metaphysical writing because it is so fuzzy and analytically weak.
>Mostly it is an attempt to sound very convincing about a particular
>silly idea that is believed without basis.  The very moment you choose
>to try to convince someone of something, you have entered into the world
>of logic, proof, and analysis, i.e., science.  This is fundamental in the
>nature of human discourse.

	Don't current astrophysical theories conclude that there was
a "time" before which time did not exist (i.e., before the Big Bang),
and there may be a "time" after which time will no longer exist (after
the collapse, if the universe is closed)? The language is paradoxical,
I grant; "time", "before", and "after" may need careful redefinition
to make it sound less "fuzzy". But if such apparent fuzziness can arise
when attempting to put astrophysics into everyday language, should we
be surprised that metaphysics has the same difficulty?

-  From the Crow's Nest  -                      Kenn Barry
                                                NASA-Ames Research Center
                                                Moffett Field, CA
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ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (04/02/85)

>> 
>> >I have a side question: Must cause precede effect??
>> 
>> A friend did a lot of work in this area, and one of his conclusions was
>> that there is no coherent model of causality which allows for backward
>> causation.  That is, if you try to come up with a definition of causality
>> which subsumes common sense notions, inherent in that definition is always 
>> a directed temporal flow between cause and effect.  I don't know how to to
>> state this is a way that convinces, but the basic way to determine an 
>> answer to the above question with some degree of confidence is to *formally
>> define* the terms.

    I believe that Goedel came up with a simple universe, consistent within
    Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, that allows legal (slower than
    light) signals to eventually enter their past history cones.

-michael