[net.philosophy] Searle: why doesn't the room understand?

throopw@rtp47.UUCP (Wayne Throop) (11/06/85)

[The discussion is about the "Chinese Room" thought experiment, proposed
 by Searle to show that formal systems can't be made to "understand"
 without having "intensionality" and "causal powers".]

Todd Moody writes:
> The example shows that there could be two 'systems,' both of
> which pass the Turing test, but only one of which understands..."

This is the point where Searle and I part company.  His claim is that
the "Chinese room" doesn't understand the Chinese language.  As nearly
as I can tell, when asked *why* this is the case, the response is
essentially "Because it just *doesn't*, so *there*!"

Perhaps someone can help me out here.  Is there some more substantive
reason for thinking that the Chinese room *system* doesn't understand?
My position is that this is an *assertion* of Searle's, and is backed up
only by our identification with the non-understanding man *in* the
room.
-- 
Wayne Throop at Data General, RTP, NC
<the-known-world>!mcnc!rti-sel!rtp47!throopw