[net.women] ``They'' vs. ``one'' vs. nothing

edhall@randvax.UUCP (Ed Hall) (04/02/85)

In my previous postings, I've tried to address why I feel the current
state of affairs--with ``he' as the prefered third-person singular
pronoun--is a bad one.  In brief, language is an important molder of
a person's ideas and of their connection to their society.  Studies
show that the mental image created by the use of ``he'' is usually
that of a male person, not a genderless person.  I have to confess
to this, myself.  I don't remember anyone specifically teaching me
this mental image, any more than I remember anyone teaching me that
the ``man'' at the end of ``fireman'' meant someone of the male
gender.  But I have yet to discuss these things with a person--of
either sex--who didn't form the same sort of male-biased image in
their mind, at least when they were a child.

A change needs to be made; what the language needs is a good, genderless,
third-person singular pronoun.  In its current usage ``one'' is
insufficient, since it bears a connotation of ``either you or me''--sort
of a mixture of first and second persons, in terms of nuance, despite its
using a third-person syntax.  Besides, when one uses ``one'', it makes
one sound a bit pretentious, doesn't it?  One sounds like one is putting
on airs...  Still, ``one'' is completely UNambiguous in terms of number;
it is hard to come up with a word that is more forceful in insisting on
its singular nature--a source of problems in using to indicate a
representative of a group.

On the other hand, ``they'' has a very strong sense of third person,
no sense of gender--and a fairly strong sense of plural number.  It
is this latter quality that makes many people--such as Marcel--
have conniption fits when ``they'' is suggested as a third-person
singular pronoun.

This leaves us in a quandry--both of our alternatives seem to have
serious problems.  Yet there is a bit of linguistic history that points
towards a solution: the evolution of the word ``you''.  About two hundred
years ago, ``you'' became a singular as well as a plural pronoun,
replacing ``thee'' and ``thou''.  Of course, this change didn't occur
overnight.  At first it was considered very sloppy usage.  But as time
went on more and more people came to use it, until ``thee'' and ``thou''
became ``old-fashioned'' and then fell from use altogether.

Why did this happen?  I have a hunch: people wanted to use the same
mode of address when speaking to one or several people, and were
tired of constantly having to make the distinction.  Except in very
rare cases the number of people in the speaker's audience made little
difference, or was available from the social context.  Thus little
was lost by making ``you'' more ambiguous, compared to the gain
achived by creating a simpler form of expression.

The same sort of evolutionary change is occuring with ``they''
(with the same howls from those groups resisting the change).
Why?  I can see two reasons.  One, in most of the current usage
of ``he'', number is unimportant except when the ``he'' is an
individual already determined by context.  The generic ``he''
usually refers to an arbitrary individual from a particular
group of one or more.  This is parallel to the use of ``you'',
where number is also unimportant or part of the context.
Two, in most cases where the generic ``he'' is used, *gender*
is unimportant as well.  This is the crux of the issue at hand--
the *unintentional* specification of gender creates a built-in
semantic prejudice for that gender.

All sorts of contrived examples have been generated (some even posted
to the net) ``proving'' how incorrect ``they'' is.  These all have one
or more of the following flaws:

1) A specific individual, of known gender, is being refered to.

2) A singular verb is used with ``they''--compare this to using a
   singular verb with ``you''.  Both sound equally ``wrong''.

3) A plural noun is used in conjunction with ``they'' used in a
   singular sense, or vice-versa.  See the last sentence of my first
   paragraph:  ``... [a] male-biased image in their mind, at least
   when they were a child''.  Note the singular ``mind'', but the
   plural ``they''.

4) A dialog is invented where the loss of the singular/plural
   distinction creates an ambiguity in our perception of the
   situation.  Note that equally ambiguous dialogs can be created
   involving the word ``you''--and are just as likely to happen in
   real life.

5) A singular ``they'' is used in a situation which is specific
   to individuals of a particular sex.  Actually, these examples
   don't bother me much, since gender is generally obvious from
   syntax.

Other than such ``examples'', every complaint against the singular
``they'' seems to boil down to ``it's ungrammatical'' or ``it sounds
bad''.  To each of these, I answer (in addition to the 200+ lines
of stuff I've posted on this): ``Time will tell.''  20 years from
now, I suspect that singular ``they'' will be firmly established in
the mainstream of English--unless reactionaries manage to whip up
enough backlash to reverse the trend.  It is from such fears that
I find the motivation to write.

		-Ed Hall
		decvax!randvax!edhall

mfs@mhuxr.UUCP (SIMON) (04/08/85)

> Ed Hall:
> A change needs to be made; what the language needs is a good, genderless,
> third-person singular pronoun.  In its current usage ``one'' is
> insufficient, since it bears a connotation of ``either you or me''--sort
> of a mixture of first and second persons, in terms of nuance, despite its
> using a third-person syntax.  Besides, when one uses ``one'', it makes
> one sound a bit pretentious, doesn't it?  One sounds like one is putting
> on airs...  Still, ``one'' is completely UNambiguous in terms of number;
> it is hard to come up with a word that is more forceful in insisting on
> its singular nature--a source of problems in using to indicate a
> representative of a group.
> 
From the American Heritage Dictionary (New College Edition), published 1981:

"one: (pronoun) 1) A certain person or thing; someone or something. 2) Any person
or thing; anyone or anything. 3) A single person or thing among persons or
things already known or mentioned (e.g. one of the Elizabethans) "

Also, one of the meanings given for 'one' as an adjective is:
"Designating a certain person, especially a person not previously known
or mentioned"

I don't see any "connotation of ``either you or me''" here. It seems quite
clear that 'one' is a nice, neutral, third person singular pronoun used to
isolate a single person from a group of generic persons, where not much else
about that person is known (such as sex). So where is the "need" for something
else? As for 'one' being pretentious, why is that so? You assert pretentiousness
but give no proof, no support for your assertion. Why is a perfectly good
pronoun suddenly "pretentious"? Do you feel it is incorrectly defined
(by the dictionary)?

None of the reasons Ed cites (and then demolishes) against the singular
'they' applies to my hostility to it. Simply put, the language ain't broke,
so don't fix it. People use the language incorrectly, using 'he' where something
gender neutral should be used. It is clear to me that 'one' exists
specifically for such situations. Using the singular 'they' instead introduces
needless ambiguity, and as I have argued in a previous posting, ambiguity
is not a good idea in everyday communication. So why use it? Is it not
more "natural" to use a pronoun already in wide usage, and with which
most people are at least somewhat familiar, than to force this square
peg of a singular 'they' into the round hole of gender neutrality?

Marcel Simon

edhall@randvax.UUCP (Ed Hall) (04/10/85)

> Is it not
> more "natural" to use a pronoun already in wide usage, and with which
> most people are at least somewhat familiar, than to force this square
> peg of a singular 'they' into the round hole of gender neutrality?
> 
> Marcel Simon

Two points:
  (1) ``One'' is not in very wide usage, at least in conversation,
      at least partially because it sounds affected.
  (2) Singular ``They'' is at least as widely used, especially in
      conversation.

		-Ed Hall
		decvax!randvax!edhall

ellis@spar.UUCP (Michael Ellis) (04/16/85)

In article <2396@randvax.UUCP> edhall@randvax.UUCP (Ed Hall) writes:
> Is it not
> more "natural" to use a pronoun already in wide usage, and with which
> most people are at least somewhat familiar, than to force this square
> peg of a singular 'they' into the round hole of gender neutrality?
> 
> Marcel Simon

    More problems with `One' vs. `They'

    In professional jargon, `they' shares the quality `anaphoric' with
    the pronouns `he/she', whereas `one' lacks this feature, as below:

    A. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give him/her my memo.

       Here, the pronoun has anaphoric use; it refers to a previously
       mentioned specific noun. Which of the below sentences is 
       is more natural?

    B. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give them my memo.
    C. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give one my memo.

     I'd believe that the vast majority of native english speakers
      would at least understand (B), but not (C).

     The quality shared by {they,he,she} but not by {one}, is
     apparently so important that people are willing to overlook
     the mismatch in number caused by the use of `they' rather
     than deal with the total loss of reference caused by the
     use of `one'.

     Apparently, Marcel, you value the grammatical category `number'
     more highly than most english speakers.

-michael

mfs@mhuxr.UUCP (SIMON) (04/18/85)

> Michael Ellis:
>     A. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give him/her my memo.
> 
>        Here, the pronoun has anaphoric use; it refers to a previously
>        mentioned specific noun. Which of the below sentences is 
>        is more natural?
> 
>     B. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give them my memo.
>     C. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give one my memo.
> 
>      I'd believe that the vast majority of native english speakers
>       would at least understand (B), but not (C).

How about phrasing the sentence as:
	Be sure to give Bill's secretary my memo.

Also, in that context, it is likely that the sex of the secretary will be known.
'One' refers to a person or thing as part of a group of persons or things,
where the interesting attribute is belonging to the group. Thus 'one' would not
be the pronoun of choice in the context you cite. It is always possible, and
generally easy, to phrase gender neutrally, and avoid awkwardness.

Marcel Simon

dmcanzi@watdcsu.UUCP (David Canzi) (04/19/85)

In article <300@mhuxr.UUCP> mfs@mhuxr.UUCP (SIMON) writes:
>> Michael Ellis:
>>     A. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give him/her my memo.
>> 
>>        Here, the pronoun has anaphoric use; it refers to a previously
>>        mentioned specific noun. Which of the below sentences is 
>>        is more natural?
>> 
>>     B. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give them my memo.
>>     C. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give one my memo.
>
>How about phrasing the sentence as:
>	Be sure to give Bill's secretary my memo.

I think orthogonality is important in spoken languages, for the same
reason it's important in programming languages: it reduces the amount
of mental effort you have to devote to the form of what you say, so
you can concentrate on content.  Content is the part that counts.

It's too much to expect that, in casual day-to-day conversation, we
should have to go to all the trouble of rearranging the words of a
sentence the way you suggest.  What the English language needs (the
orthogonal solution) is a third-person singular neuter pronoun which
can be used anaphorically.

We actually have such a beast in the word "it".  My version of the
above sentence would be:

	D. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure to give it my memo.

If we use the word "it" this way, we gain orthogonality.  We lose the
ability to distinguish people from objects by our choice of pronouns.
The French don't have this ability.  Has it crippled them in any way?
Do they ever wish their language provided it?
--
	David Canzi

crs@lanl.ARPA (04/23/85)

> > Michael Ellis:
> >     A. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give him/her my memo.
> > 
> >        Here, the pronoun has anaphoric use; it refers to a previously
> >        mentioned specific noun. Which of the below sentences is 
> >        is more natural?
> > 
> >     B. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give them my memo.
> >     C. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure you give one my memo.
> > 
> >      I'd believe that the vast majority of native english speakers
> >       would at least understand (B), but not (C).
> 
> How about phrasing the sentence as:
> 	Be sure to give Bill's secretary my memo.
> 
> Also, in that context, it is likely that the sex of the secretary will be known.
> 'One' refers to a person or thing as part of a group of persons or things,
> where the interesting attribute is belonging to the group. Thus 'one' would not
> be the pronoun of choice in the context you cite. It is always possible, and
> generally easy, to phrase gender neutrally, and avoid awkwardness.
> 
> Marcel Simon

It is also not too difficult to pick awkward examples of the form that
you don't like as in C. above.  I must agree with Marcel.  I come from
an area and a time when singular "they" was a *commonly used* form of
*poor* grammar.  Now it grates on my ear as do misuse of comprise and
any use of orientate (yes I know it's in the dictionary; the next
thing we'll find there is "ostentate").  I agree with the occasional
need for a gender non-specific singular pronoun[1] but they isn't it.
Perhaps, as someone suggested a while ago, we should find a language
that supports one and borrow theirs as we have done with so many
useful words.

[1]  We have a gender *neutral* singular pronoun; it is "it".


Charlie Sorsby
...!{cmcl2,ihnp4,...}!lanl!crs
crs@lanl.arpa

js2j@mhuxt.UUCP (sonntag) (04/23/85)

> What the English language needs (the
> orthogonal solution) is a third-person singular neuter pronoun which
> can be used anaphorically.
> 
> We actually have such a beast in the word "it".  My version of the
> above sentence would be:
> 
> 	D. When you see Bill's secretary, be sure to give it my memo.
> 
> If we use the word "it" this way, we gain orthogonality.  We lose the
> ability to distinguish people from objects by our choice of pronouns.
> The French don't have this ability.  Has it crippled them in any way?
> Do they ever wish their language provided it?
> --
> 	David Canzi

     The french don't even have a word similar to 'it', I only had three
years in high school, but as far as I know, they have to use words which
mean 'him' and 'her' even when they are referring to objects, not people.
I think a frenchman would be stuck saying 'give him my memo' or 'give her
my memo', just as we are.  
     I don't know if the french ever wish their language provided the
ability to distinguish people from objects with pronouns, but *I* certainly
wished it did when I was trying to learn it.  Sentences like 'Give it
to her.' could translate literally to 'Give him to her.' or 'Give her to
her.', depending on the gender of the referenced object.  Obviously, this
was a great source of confusion to someone who hasn't figured out whether
the direct object comes before or after the indirect object.
-- 
Jeff Sonntag
ihnp4!mhuxt!js2j
    "This statement is true."