[net.politics] the futility of measuring utility

tdh@frog.UUCP (T. Dave Hudson) (12/03/84)

Marginal utility cannot be objectively measured.

It cannot be measured in terms of the marginal utility of some fungible
good.  If I have two alternative courses of action, say the having of an
apple and the having of a pear, and I choose having the apple, its
marginal utility is inferred from my choice as having greater m.u. than
having the pear.  I can then pick two amounts of, say, pure gold, such
that the prospects of having one of the two amounts of gold and having
the apple are indifferent to me, and similarly with the pear.  However,
the marginal utilities of the two amounts of gold cannot be presumed to
be in direct proportion to the amounts;  in fact, the marginal utility
of the greater amount is usually less than in proportion, due to the
fact that marginal utility usually decreases with the increasing having
of a good.  Furthermore, there can be no such thing as infinitesimal
marginal utility.  The preceding argument is given at greater length in
Ludwig von Mises' *The Theory of Money and Credit*.

If marginal utility cannot be measured in terms of things being chosen
among, then perhaps it might be measured in terms of the psychological
process of choosing.  Some have alleged that the measurement of pain and
pleasure, the presently infeasibly physically measureable emotional
response to the prospects of choices, would suffice.  However, it has
long been known that ideas can be stronger than emotions.  Those of great
willpower can choose to endure excruciating emotional pain over great
emotional pleasure, if they think that is the right thing to do, without
being compensated by emotional joy about their doing what they think is
right.  Even the ordinary human can be taught to ignore emotions, to
treat them as unreal and to act in disregard of them.  Granted, this
type of action may be viewed as a reflecting a personality disorder, a
divided soul, and very likely as the consequence of having partially
accepted an evil moral standard.  But its existence and even frequency
cannot be denied.  Greater and lesser emotions, and pleasurable and
painful emotions, do not necessarily conform in the expected way with the
preferring and setting-asides of action.

That leaves the possibility of a non-emotional pshychological measurement
of marginal utility, for there are no further aspects of the process
of choosing that could relate to something measurable.  Is there a graded
response to the holding of ideas, whether they allow emotions as input or
not?  Whatever it might be, the response would have to be something
physically measureable.  What would prevent the intense
mental activity of solving a difficult but minor problem from
outweighing that of a simple but major problem?  How (by what standard)
would you normalize the activity taking place at different times (ignoring
the idiocy of normalizing activity taking place in different people) in
the same person?  Should you take a multiple decision being made by
binary elimination and presume that the same winning alternative will
bring about the same physical reaction each step of the way, or are you
really dealing with multiple marginal utilities of the same
alternative (So which one would be used to measure the actualizing of
the alternative?)?  Should mental fatigue be compensated for?  Will the
reaction only be differential, therefore requiring an explanation of how
to separate the marginal utility of one alternative from that of the other
and from unconsidered alternatives?  Do recognizedly impossible and
therefore rejected alternatives have any marginal utility (since there
is corresponding mental activity)??

Perhaps one could play witch-doctor so as to allow oneself to pretend to
measure marginal utility :-).

					David Hudson