[net.physics] The death of bogus physics

weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) (03/24/86)

I'd like to apologize to Jim Giles for getting nasty with him.  I guess
I just wasn't making myself clear at first.  Also, I ended up bringing
my copy of MTW in from home to the office, which for me is a two mile
walk these days.

Strange and inaccurate versions of general relativity seem to be rather
common: once it got its myth of incomprehensibility, comprehension was
no longer a requirement for speaking about it.

A good way to clear out the educational system's brainwashing efforts here
is to read Albert Einstein's original works on the subject.  They shine
with a crystal clearness with no one's muddy simplifications to hide the
true beauty of general relativity.  (And Pais _Subtle is the Lord_ is a
fine guidebook to these originals.)

From "Die Grundlage der allgemeinen Relativitaetstheorie", _Annalen der
Physik_, 49, 1916 (from the Dover paperback translation):

Of all imaginable spaces ... in any kind of motion relatively to one
another, there is none which we may look upon as privileged a priori....
THE LAWS OF PHYSICS MUST BE OF SUCH A NATURE THAT THEY APPLY TO SYSTEMS
OF REFERENCE IN ANY KIND OF MOTION.        [p 113]

This view of space and time [that space and time coordinates have
intrinsic physical meaning] has alway been in the minds of physicists....
But we shall now show that we must put it aside and replace it by a more
general view, in order to be able to carry through the postulate of
general relativity....
In a space which is free of gravitational fields we introduce a Galilean
system of reference K(x,y,z,t) and also a system of co-ordinates
K'(x',y',z',t') in uniform rotation relatively to K.  Let the origins of
both systems, as well as their axes of Z, permanently coincide.  We
shall show that for a space-time measurement in the system K' the above
definition of the physical meaning of length and times cannot be maintained.
[Because of special relativity, the circumference is measured by contracted
rods and so seems longer, so the spatial geometry is not Euclidean.  Clocks
too are our position dependent in K'.
[Editorial comment here: I earlier posted a remark that fake gravity induced
by accelerations cannot change the geometry.  The point is that while only
mass-energy can alter the space-time geometry, different coordinate choices
CAN alter your spatial geometry.  It is the frame chooser's responsibility
to make sure he knows what he is doing, not Einstein's.]
We therefore reach this result:--In the general theory of relativity,
space and time cannot be defined in such a way that differences of the
spatial co-ordinates can be directly measured by the unit measuring-rod,
or differences in the time co-ordinate by a standard clock.
The method hitherto employed for laying co-ordinates ... breaks down....
So there is nothing for it but to regard all imaginable systems of
co-ordinates, on principle, as equally suitable for the description of
nature.  This comes to requiring that:--
THE GENERAL LAWS OF NATURE ARE TO BE EXPRESSED BY EQUATIONS WHICH HOLD
GOOD FOR ALL SYSTEMS OF CO-ORDINATES, THAT IS, ARE CO-VARIANT WITH RESPECT
TO ANY SUBSTITUTIONS WHATEVER (GENERALLY CO-VARIANT).    [pp 115-117]

[In choosing among co-ordinate systems], there is no immediate reason for
preferring certain systems of co-ordinates to others.   [p 117]

From _The Meaning of Relativity_, fifth edition:

The case that we have been considering [K and K' in relative rotation] is
analogous to that which is presented in the two-dimensional treatment of
surfaces.  It is impossible in the latter case also, to introduce co-ord-
inates on a surface (eg the surface of an ellipsoid) which have a simple
metrical significance, while on a plane the Cartesion co-ordinates, x1, x2,
signify directly lengths measured by a unit measuring rod.  Gauss overcame
this difficulty, in his theory of surfaces, by introducing curvilinear
co-ordinates which, apart from satisfying conditions of continuity, were
wholly arbitrary, and only afterwards these co-ordinates were related to
the metrical properties of the surface.  In an analogous way we shall
introduce int he general theory of relativity arbitrary co-ordinates,
x1, x2, x3, x4, which shall number uniquely the space-time points, so that
neighbouring events are associated with neighbouring values of the co-ord-
inates; otherwise the choice of co-ordinates is arbitrary.  We shall be
true to the principle of relativity in its broadest sense if we give such
a form to the laws that they are valid in every such four-dimensional system
of co-ordinates, that is, if the equations expressing the laws are co-variant
with respect to arbitrary transformations.    [p 61]
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
As a final point, the assertion that most frames in general relativity
are local Lorentz frames is just plain false.  Off the top of my head there
are Schwarzschild, Reissner-Nordstrom, Kerr, Boyer-Linquist, Kruskal-Szekeres,
Taub-NUT, plane wave, de Sitter, anti-de Sitter, Roberston-Walker, Godel,
and mixmaster coordinate systems, and not one of them is a local Lorentz
frame!

It is true that the theoretical justification of certain points is easier
to do with calculations in a local Lorentz frame.  So keep reading MTW Jim,
you'll get to the good stuff eventually.

ucbvax!brahms!weemba	Matthew P Wiener/UCB Math Dept/Berkeley CA 94720

jlg@lanl.ARPA (Jim Giles) (03/24/86)

In article <12603@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) writes:
>Of all imaginable spaces ... in any kind of motion relatively to one
>another, there is none which we may look upon as privileged a priori....
>THE LAWS OF PHYSICS MUST BE OF SUCH A NATURE THAT THEY APPLY TO SYSTEMS
>OF REFERENCE IN ANY KIND OF MOTION.        [p 113]
>
...
>In a space which is free of gravitational fields we introduce a Galilean
>system of reference K(x,y,z,t) and also a system of co-ordinates
>K'(x',y',z',t') in uniform rotation relatively to K.  Let the origins of
>both systems, as well as their axes of Z, permanently coincide.  We
>shall show that for a space-time measurement in the system K' the above
>definition of the physical meaning of length and times cannot be maintained.
>[Because of special relativity, the circumference is measured by contracted
>rods and so seems longer, so the spatial geometry is not Euclidean.  Clocks
>too are our position dependent in K'.
[etc.]

All this is but to say that given sufficient mathematical sophistication
you can correctly work out what's going on in either coordinate system.  I
never doubted this.  But it still doesn't answer my original objection to
the Russell quote: given the frames K and K' - AT MOST one of them will be
able to spin up a gyroscope and observe NO precession.  In addition, the
frame which measures no precession on its gyroscopes will be fixed relative
to the distant stars to many significant figures of measurement (in the
neighborhood of Earth: within 0.1 arc seconds per year (MTW pp. 1119-
1121)).  To this extent, AT LEAST, there seems to be a prefered frame with
respect to rotation.

Now, I guess you are arguing that the coincident event of zero precession
locally and being fixed relative to the distant stars is 'merely a matter
of convenience'.  Well, I'm not buying it.  And neither did Einstein, who
spent considerable effort to determine why this might be so.  This is why
I brought Mach's principle into this discussion - which not only predicts
that there would be a 'prefered' frame, but gives a relativistic
explanation for the effect (it also predicts that any local variation
from the 'prefered' frame would be insignificant).

While it is certainly convenient to do one's calculations in a non-rotating
coordinate system, there also seems to be something physically significant
about such systems as well.

J. Giles
Los Alamos

kort@hounx.UUCP (B.KORT) (03/24/86)

Matthew Wiener treats us to some nuggets from Einstein:

>Of all imaginable spaces ... in any kind of motion relatively to one
>another, there is none which we may look upon as privileged a priori....
>THE LAWS OF PHYSICS MUST BE OF SUCH A NATURE THAT THEY APPLY TO SYSTEMS
>OF REFERENCE IN ANY KIND OF MOTION.        [p 113]
>
>THE GENERAL LAWS OF NATURE ARE TO BE EXPRESSED BY EQUATIONS WHICH HOLD
>GOOD FOR ALL SYSTEMS OF CO-ORDINATES, THAT IS, ARE CO-VARIANT WITH RESPECT
>TO ANY SUBSTITUTIONS WHATEVER (GENERALLY CO-VARIANT).    [pp 115-117]
>
>[In choosing among co-ordinate systems], there is no immediate reason for
>preferring certain systems of co-ordinates to others.   [p 117]

OK.  Let's see what we can do with these gems.

Let's substitute "discussions" for "spaces",
		 "emotion" for "motion"
		 "SENTIENT BEINGS" for "PHYSICS"
		 "BELIEF" for "REFERENCE" or "CO-ORDINATES"

We get...

Of all imaginable discussions ... in any kind of emotion relatively to one
another, there is none which we may look upon as privileged a priori....
THE LAWS OF SENTIENT BEINGS MUST BE OF SUCH A NATURE THAT THEY APPLY TO
SYSTEMS OF BELIEF IN ANY KIND OF EMOTION.        [meta-p 113]

THE GENERAL LAWS OF NATURE ARE TO BE EXPRESSED BY EQUATIONS WHICH HOLD
GOOD FOR ALL SYSTEMS OF BELIEF, THAT IS, ARE CO-VARIANT WITH RESPECT
TO ANY SUBSTITUTIONS WHATEVER (GENERALLY CO-VARIANT).    [meta-pp 115-117]

[In choosing among belief systems], there is no immediate reason for
preferring certain systems of belief to others.   [meta-p 117]


I don't know if this exercise leads anywhere, but the above example
of the "copy-with-substitute" procedure does seem to preserve a certain
sensibility to it.  I wonder if anyone else has noticed the deep
isomorphism between the laws of physics and the laws of human nature.

--Barry Kort  ...ihnp4!hounx!kort

gwyn@brl-smoke.ARPA (Doug Gwyn ) (03/24/86)

In article <12603@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) writes:
>It is true that the theoretical justification of certain points is easier
>to do with calculations in a local Lorentz frame.

From the point of view of the more general theory, it is important
to realize that a general metric cannot be completely diagonalized
by real (differentiable) coordinate transformations, so a local
Lorentz frame is not always possible.  A theory in which it IS
always possible is one that neglects other possible metric-related
physical effects besides gravitation.

In answer to the fellow who wanted to know what the difference is
between space and space-time:  When one diagonalizes the symmetric
part of the metric (the only part considered in normal general
relativity) using real coordinate mappings, one of the four
diagonal elements will have different sign than the other three.
In the transformed (local Lorentz) frame, that coordinate will be
associated with the direction of time while the other three are
spatial.

weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) (03/26/86)

In article <875@lanl.ARPA> jlg@a.UUCP (Jim Giles) writes:
>All this is but to say that given sufficient mathematical sophistication
>you can correctly work out what's going on in either coordinate system.  I
>never doubted this.  But it still doesn't answer my original objection to
>the Russell quote: given the frames K and K' - AT MOST one of them will be
>able to spin up a gyroscope and observe NO precession.

And when did Russell say that was false?  'precession' is a frame-dependent
phenomena, as you have just shown, and is not covariant.  Russell said the
difference between the two was 'mathematical convenience'.  Perhaps you would
have been happier if he went on to say the mathematically simpler was the one
that gets the standard physics terminology.

>                                                        In addition, the
>frame which measures no precession on its gyroscopes will be fixed relative
>to the distant stars to many significant figures of measurement (in the
>neighborhood of Earth: within 0.1 arc seconds per year (MTW pp. 1119-
>1121)).  To this extent, AT LEAST, there seems to be a prefered frame with
>respect to rotation.

Preferred if you like your calculations to be simple and your terminology
to be standard.  Not preferred if you want to understand the geometry of
space-time itself.  In either K or K', the curvature will come out zero.
That is geometry.  That is where the real physics lies.

Does the above paragraph sound like it is from MTW?  It should.

>Now, I guess you are arguing that the coincident event of zero precession
>locally and being fixed relative to the distant stars is 'merely a matter
>of convenience'.  Well, I'm not buying it.  And neither did Einstein, who
>spent considerable effort to determine why this might be so.  This is why
>I brought Mach's principle into this discussion - which not only predicts
>that there would be a 'prefered' frame, but gives a relativistic
>explanation for the effect (it also predicts that any local variation
>from the 'prefered' frame would be insignificant).

But physics today rejects the notion of a preferred frame.  That is the
meaning of general covariance.  Given a frame, it is the individual framer's
responsibility to correlate his coordinate measurements with physical
reality.  There is no apriori meaning.  Thus in studying black holes, a lot
of effort must go into figuring out what 'r' and 't' refer to physically.
If you hold the earth as fixed in your frame, and then calculate that Alpha
Centauri is going 9490 times faster than light, you have abdicated your
responsibility of relating coordinate numbers to physical notions.

The only possible meaning of Mach's principle in general relativity today
is as Doug Gwyn pointed out, is in the notion of boundary conditions.

>While it is certainly convenient to do one's calculations in a non-rotating
>coordinate system, there also seems to be something physically significant
>about such systems as well.

Yes.  There is physical significance to inertial frames.

ucbvax!brahms!weemba	Matthew P Wiener/UCB Math Dept/Berkeley CA 94720

weemba@brahms.BERKELEY.EDU (Matthew P. Wiener) (03/27/86)

In article <2049@brl-smoke.ARPA> gwyn@brl.ARPA writes:
>In answer to the fellow who wanted to know what the difference is
>between space and space-time:  When one diagonalizes the symmetric
>part of the metric (the only part considered in normal general
>relativity) using real coordinate mappings, one of the four
>diagonal elements will have different sign than the other three.
>In the transformed (local Lorentz) frame, that coordinate will be
>associated with the direction of time while the other three are
>spatial.

I don't believe this.  The fellow asked for laymen's terms only.

ucbvax!brahms!weemba	Matthew P Wiener/UCB Math Dept/Berkeley CA 94720

gwyn@brl-smoke.UUCP (03/28/86)

In article <751@hounx.UUCP> kort@hounx.UUCP (B.KORT) writes:
>[In choosing among belief systems], there is no immediate reason for
>preferring certain systems of belief to others.   [meta-p 117]
>
>I don't know if this exercise leads anywhere, but the above example
>of the "copy-with-substitute" procedure does seem to preserve a certain
>sensibility to it.  I wonder if anyone else has noticed the deep
>isomorphism between the laws of physics and the laws of human nature.

I take strong issue with considering the substituted quotation
to be a "law of human nature".  Unlike coordinate systems,
which are an artifical contrivance, human beings are existing
concrete entities with specific characteristics, so one very
well WOULD expect there to be preferred belief systems, moral
codes, etc. derived from the actual nature of human beings.
I do not grant equal credence to a criminal's belief in his
right to kill me and in my belief that I have the right to live.

This isn't really a physics topic, but that's where you posted.

gwyn@brl-smoke.UUCP (03/29/86)

In article <12699@ucbvax.BERKELEY.EDU> weemba@brahms.UUCP (Matthew P. Wiener) writes:
>In article <2049@brl-smoke.ARPA> gwyn@brl.ARPA writes:
>>In answer to the fellow who wanted to know what the difference is
>>between space and space-time:  When one diagonalizes the symmetric
>>part of the metric (the only part considered in normal general
>>relativity) using real coordinate mappings, one of the four
>>diagonal elements will have different sign than the other three.
>>In the transformed (local Lorentz) frame, that coordinate will be
>>associated with the direction of time while the other three are
>>spatial.
>
>I don't believe this.  The fellow asked for laymen's terms only.

So?  I would like a layman's explanation of how the universe works
in 25 words or less, but I don't think it's very likely.  The
problem with simpler, inaccurate explanations is that one then has
to work even harder to correct all the misperceptions that the
oversimplified explanation produces.  Since nobody had answered
the question about "the difference between space and spacetime"
(see! already a misperception) satisfactorily, I decided to supply
an accurate answer as an aside to another posting.  I really don't
think this topic could be explained to a layman without many pages
of discussion and examples, in any event; without resorting to
something like my principal axes of the metric tensor explanation,
a layman's explanation would sound something like:  "At any place
in the universe, at any time, there are three directions of space,
which have no preferred alignment, and one direction of time.
Time is that which a clock measures, and space can be measured by
yardsticks."  I don't think that would be particularly
enlightening.  Worse yet, a clever layman is likely to ask
embarrassing questions such as:  "Is there any place in the
universe with only two space directions?  Two space and two time?
etc.?"  Then one would have to explain more accurately anyway.

If you think you can answer the layman's question better,
please do so, and more power to you.


	"We know for certain, for instance, that for some
	reason, for some time in the beginning, there were
	hot lumps."
		-- Firesign Theater, "I Think We're All
					Bozos On This Bus"