ogre@mhuxl.UUCP (LO COCO) (06/03/85)
> >> > or catcher. The batter could swing at the ball, striking out, and take off > >> > for first. If he beats the throw, he's reached base by striking out > >> > intentionally! > >> > >> I believe the rule says that the catcher must drop the ball in order for the > >> runner to be able to take off for first. In this case, if the catcher doesn't > >> touch the ball, my guess is that the batter is out on strikes. > > >The only time that a batter cannot run to first on a third strike is > >when there are less than two outs and first base is occupied. > > Why not? Can't the runner on first go to second and get a stolen base (or > would that be scored as a wild pitch/passed ball)? > > Mike Ryan > ARPA: ryan%fremen.DEC@DECWRL.ARPA > UUCP: {decvax,allegra,ihnp4,ucbvax,...}!decwrl!dec-rhea!dec-fremen!ryan > ENet: {FREMEN,BCSENG,CLOUD9}::RYAN Again we go to the rulebook. With less than two outs, the rules do not allow the batter to advance in order to protect the runners; much like the infield fly rule. A shrewd catcher could bait a batter and obtain a double play without this rule. Yes, though, the runner can advance at his own risk; sounds like the infield fly rule again, huh? -- John B. Lo Coco (...mhuxl!ogre) (...szuxn!ogre) 1-201-467-7436