halle@hou2b.UUCP (J.HALLE) (08/14/85)
How about an opening day no-hitter? (I don't know if it has ever happened.)
djvh@drutx.UUCP (VanHandelDJ) (08/14/85)
How can a pitcher no-hit a team, but the team BA stays the same? Two ways quickly pop into my mind, neither of which is reasonable: 1) The team BA was .000 coming into the game. 2) Each out is made by throwing out a baserunner; and all baserunners got on base without being charged with a time at-bat. Example: Every batter walks and is thrown out trying to steal. Dave Van Handel drutx!djvh
mlt@mb2c.UUCP (Mark L. Tompkins) (08/15/85)
> How about an opening day no-hitter? (I don't know if it has ever happened.)
I believe Cleveland's Bob Feller tossed an opening day no-hitter in the 40's.
If I remember correctly, it was the year he returned from the service, which
would have made it Opening Day 1946. Anyone know for sure?
Mark Tompkinsglass@houxf.UUCP (K.GLASS) (08/16/85)
Is a team's batting average = .000 before the season begins? I think that 0/0 is not all that well defined whereas 0/27 [or whatever] is well defined. Are these two really equal? Ken Glass ...ihnp4
citrin@ucbvax.ARPA (Wayne Citrin) (08/19/85)
In article <594@hou2b.UUCP> halle@hou2b.UUCP (J.HALLE) writes: >How about an opening day no-hitter? (I don't know if it has ever happened.) Bob Feller once threw an opening-day no-hitter. Since I don't keep my Sporting News Official Baseball Record Book next to my terminal, I don't know the year. I do, however, know that it is the only one. Wayne Citrin (ucbvax!citrin)
rhoads@oasys.UUCP (08/21/85)
> > 2) Each out is made by throwing out a baserunner; and all baserunners > got on base without being charged with a time at-bat. > Example: Every batter walks and is thrown out trying to steal. > This sort of thing could also happen with Sac Bunts (so the run scores, there is nothing in the rules that says this pitcher has to WIN his no-hitter, is there?) or SAC flies. i.e. a walk, a steal, a SAC fly, a SAC bunt, another walk, and a throw out stealing scores a run in an inning with no at-bats charged, and no hits. Of course, this is probably just as silly.
rhoads@oasys.UUCP (08/21/85)
> Is a team's batting average = .000 before the season begins? I > think that 0/0 is not all that well defined whereas 0/27 [or > whatever] is well defined. Are these two really equal? > > Ken Glass > ...ihnp4 One could probably argue just as well that a team's B.A. is 1.000 on opening day, as they have a hit for every time at bat, but this is just as incorrect (or correct?) mathematically, although what does the rulebook say? However, a SECOND DAY no-hitter after an opening day no-hitter would definetly keep the other team's B.A. the same, as both 0/27 [or whatever] and 0/54 [or whatever] are both well-defined. Unfortunately, Feller was never allowed to pitch two days in a row (of course if started to rain on opening night (AFTER the game) and rained for 40 days and 40 nights...)