[net.math] New fallacy

dvk@mi-cec.UUCP (Dan Klein) (09/15/83)

All that has been done is show that all sets containing 1 element are
equal to themselves.  I don't think this comes as any great revelation
to most of us.  It seems that the "proof" can be defeated by a simple
example of a set containing 1 apple, and one orange.

		-Dan Klein, Mellon Institute, Pittsburgh