[net.math] infinite differentiability

torben@arizona.UUCP (12/13/83)

What is this apart from a restatement of Taylor's Theorem? Of course, your 
assumptions must be modified. For a function f which is just continuously 
differentiable, your result won't hold. You need to have C infinity.

fulk@sunybcs.UUCP (Mark Fulk) (12/14/83)

To prove exp(D) f = f, you need more than differentiability OR even
C infinity; you need that f is analytic.  A good example:
f(x) = exp(-1/x*x) if x>0; f(x) = 0 otherwise.  Taking x in the
statement of the problem to be 0, we would have:

(exp(D) f)(0) = 0 != f(1) = 1/e.

This is, of course, a standard example from advanced calculus.
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