wbp@hou2d.UUCP (W.PINEAULT) (09/08/84)
I posted this once, but it seems to have dissapeared from my local node. My apologies about the mistake in my last article on the 3n+1 problem. The equation to be solved is: 2**n - 3**m = 1 not the other way around. Now n=1, m=0 works, as does n=2, m=1. The reason for this connection is found by setting k=f(f(...(k)...) and solving for k given your favorite sequence of operations. The denominator of the value of k will be of the form 2**n - 3**m! Wayne Pineault AT&T Consumer Products Holmdel, NJ